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1. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is

2. A Parallel plate capacitor with vaccum b/w its plates has capacitance A slab of dielectric constant K and having the same thickness as the separation b/w the plates is introduced. So as to fill 1/3 rd of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be

3. Equivalent resistance b/w the points A and B (inΩ)

4. An ÐAOB made of a conducting wire moves along its bisector through a magnetic field B as suggested by Find the emf induced between the two free ends if the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper.

5. In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are 70V, zero and 10V Then

1) The point D will be at a potential of 60V

2) The point D will be at a potential of 20V

3) Currents in the paths AD,DB and DC are in the ratio 1:2:3

4) Currents in the paths AD,DB and DC are in the ratio 3:2:1

6. In an ammeter 0.2 % of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be

7. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I (watt m-2) on a non-reflecting surface is [c is the velocity of light]

1) Ic

2) Ic2

3) I / c

4) I / c2

8. A beam of electrons is accelerated through a Potential difference V. It is then passed normally through a uniform magnetic field where it moves in a circle of radius r. It would have moved in a circle of radius 2r if it were initially accelerated through a Potential difference.

1) √2 V

2) 2V

3) 2 √2 V

4) 4V

9. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 600 . The torque required to maintain the needle in this position is

√Add description here!

1. √3W

2. √3/2W

3) W

4) 2W

10. A thin rod of length ‘L’ and mass ‘M’ held vertically with one and fixed on the floor is allowed to fall. The velocity of the other end when it hits the floor is

√Add description here!

1. √3gL

2. √5gL

3. √2gL

4. √gL

11. In a step-up transformer, the turns ratio of primary and secondary is 1:2 A leclanche cell of emf 1.5 V is connected a cross the primary. The voltage developed across the secondary would be

1) zero

2) 3.0 V

3) 1.5V

4) 0.75V

12. Choose the correct option

1) The radiation in increasing order of frequency are radio waves, micro waves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays

2) The wave length of colours in increasing order violet, indigo blue, green, yellow, orange and red

3) The speed of light is maximum in vacuum

4) All options are correct.

13. A beam of light of wavelength  is incident on a metal having work function  and placed in a magnetic field B. The most energetic electrons emitted perpendicular to the field are bent in circular arcs of radius R. Then

14. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to the second orbit, the emitted radiation has wave length. (‘R’ is Rydberg’s constant).

1. 36/5R

2. 5R/36

3. 6/5R

4. 5R/6

15. Three-fourths of the active nuclei present in a radioactive sample decay in 3 s . The half-life of 4 the sample is

1) 1 sec

2) ½ sec

3) ¾ sec

4) 3/8 sec

16. Find VAB

1) 10V

2) 20V

3) 30V

4) None of these

17. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45º with horizontal. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is

18. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3) AND

4) OR

19. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre at C as shown in figure. The ray emerges from the sphere parallel to line AB. The refractive index of the sphere is

1. √2

2. √3

3. 3/2

4. 1/2

20. The focal length of a biconvex lens is 20 cm and its refractive index is 1.5. If the radii of curvatures of two surfaces of lens are in the ratio 1:2, then the larger radius of curvature is (in cm)

1) 10

2) 15

3) 20

4) 30

21. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kis 2V . If the base resistance is 1kand the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is.

1) 0.1V

2) 1.0V

3) 1 mV

4) 10mV

22. YDSE is completely submerged in a transparent liquid. Which of the following graphs best represent the variation of the total number of fringes N observed on the screen with the index of refraction of the liquid

23. When the angle of incidence on a material is 60º, the reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is in ms-1

24. If I =5A and decreasing at a rate of 103 ( A / sec)then V b-V a

1) 5V

2) 10V

3) 15V

4) 20V

25. Match the Columns

I II

Work, torque, energy, heat i) ML-1T -2
Young’s modulus, bulk modulus,

Shear modulus, pressure, stress ii) ML2T -2

Angular momentum, Plank’s constant iii) MLT -1
Momentum, impulse iv) ML2T -1

1) i ii iii iv

2) ii i iv iii

3) iv iii ii i

4) iii iv ii i

26.

1) 3m/s

2) -12m/s

3) 42m/s

4) -9m/s

27. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal surface and then rolls up and inclined plane as shown in the If the velocity of the disc is v, then height to which the disc will rise will be

28. An object is projected with a velocity of 10m/s at an angle 450 with horizontal. The equation of trajectory followed by the projectile is y= x -x2 , the ratio /is

1) 5

2) 10

3) 15

4) 20

29. A ship is travelling due east at a speed of 15km/h. Find the speed of a boat heading 30º east of north if it appears always due north from the ship.

30. Four identical blocks each of mass m are linked by threads as shown. If the system moves with constant acceleration under the influence of force F, the tension T2 is

1) F

2) F / 2

3) 2F

4) F / 4

31.The friction acting on the upper block is

1) 8N

2) 2N

3) 25N

4) zero

32. The number of electrons present on the oil drop which has the static electric charge of 3.02044*10º-19 C is

ºAdd description here!

1) 2

2) 5

3) 7

4) 8

33. Electrons are emitted with zero velocity from a metal surface when it is exposed to radiation of wavelength 4000 A0 . The threshold frequency is

34. An element Z=120 has not yet been discovered. In which group would you place this element

1) IV A

2) VII A

3) II A

4) V A

35. The correct matching is

36. In a molecule of type (AB2L3 ), the central atom (A) contains two bond pairs (B) and three lone pairs(L) . Then the shape of that molecule is

1) T-shape

2) See saw

3) V-shape

4) Linear

37. At a given temperature, the ratio of Kinetic energy of 3 gram of hydrogen and 4 gram of oxygen is

1) 1:12

2) 12:1

3) 5:6

4) 3:4

38. The specific gravity of 84% (w/w ) H2 SO4 is 1.752. The normality of solution is

1) 30.03 N

2) 2.05N

3) 39.5N

4) 4.5N

39.The prefix “pico” represents the multiple of

40. The PH of the water that comes out from cation exchange resin in synthetic resin method is

1) <7

2) >7

3) 7

4) 10

41. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to Alumina should be between

1) 1 to 2

2) 2.5 to 4

3) 5 to 7

4) 4.5 to 7.5

42. The charge heated in the blast furnace contains ore, coke and limestone in the ratio by weight of

1) 1:2:3

2) 1:4:8

3) 8:4:1

4) 2:2:2

43.The complex Fe (CO)follows the EAN rule. Then the value of ' x ' is

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

44. Which of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation

1) (+) sucrose

2) (+) Lactose

3) (+) Maltose

4) (-) Fructose

45. Which of the following varies from species to species

1) A=T

2) C=G

3) A+G=C+T

4) AT/ GC ratio

46. Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer

1) PVC

2) Thiokol

3) Teflon

4) Neoprene

47. Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished by which of the following methods?

1) Oxidation method

2) Lucas test

3) Victor meyer’s method

4) All of the above

48. Which of the following would not react with benzene sulphonyl chloride in aq.NaOH ?

1) Aniline

2) Methylamine

3) N,N-Dimethylaniline

4) N-Methyl ethanamine

49. A first order reaction is 50% complete in 23min. The time required to complete 90% of the reaction is

1) 23min

2) 56min

3) 76.5min

4) 92min

50. Which of the following taxonomic categories includes all the other categories?

1) order

2) kingdom

3) species

4) family

51. Muscles which regulate the diameter of pupil are

1) Ectodermal striated

2) Mesodermal striated

3) Ectodermal unstriated

4) Mesodermal unstriated

52. Which of the following is not related to Rock weed

1) It is a Rhodophyceae member

2) It contains chl.a and chl.c

3) Diplontic life cycle is present

4) Two unequal lateral flagella are present

53.The correct sequence of the above from inside to outside w.r.to the nerve fibre is

The following are associated with nerve fibres in Peripheral Nervous System
A) Axolemma B) Neurilemma C) Endoneurium D) Myelin sheath
E) Axoplasm

1) E,A,B,D,C

2) E,A,D,C,B

3) E,A,C,B,D

4) E,A,D,B,C

54. How many sentences are correct related to Terror of Bengal

i) Vegetative propagation takes place through offset
ii) It is free floating hydrophyte
iii) Pulvinus petiole is present
iv) It drains CO2 from the water

1) All are correct

2) Three are correct

3) Two are correct

4) one is correct

55. Identify the correct statements

A) Thyroxine can decrease rate of heart beat and cardiac output
B) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac
output
C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac output
D) Parasympathetic neural signals can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac output

1) A,B

2) B,C

3) C,D

4) A,D

56.Choose the incorrect combinations from the following

A) R.C.Dagar – Polyblend
B) Kyoto protocol – Depletion of O3
C) Amrita Devi – Conservation of wildlife in urban areas
D) Burning of plastics – Polychlorinated biphenyls

1) all the above

2) A,B

3) C,D

4) A,B,C

57. Ascospores and Basidiospores produced in the following manner

1) Endogenously, Endogenously

2) Exogenously, Endogenously

3) Endogenously, Exogenously

4) Exogenously, Exogenously

58. Defects in ADH receptors or inability to secrete ADH cause

1) Diabetes mellitus

2) Diabetes insipidus

3) Uremia

4) Renal Calculi

59.Pneumatophores are present in

1) Rhizopus

2) Rhizobium

3) Vanda

4) Rhizophora

60. Correct match is

1) Pinnately compound leaf – Silk cotton

2) Alternate phyllotaxy – Mustard

3) Opposite phyllotaxy – China rose

4) Whorled phyllotaxy – Calotropis

61. In mitochondria cytochrome c attached to

1) Outer surface of the inner membrane

2) Outer surface of the outer membrane

3) Inner surface of the inner membrane

4) Inner surface of the outer membrane

62. During recovery from vigorous physical exercise, deeper breathing continues as extra O2 is required for

A) regeneration of oxyhemoglobin
B) oxidation of accumulated lactic acid
C) restoration of creatine phosphate
Choose the correct statements from the above

1) A,B

2) A,C

3) B,C

4) all the above

63.How many of the plants having axile placentation

a) Pisum

b) Brassica

c) Solanum

d) Allium

64. Identify the mismatch:

1) Insulin Shock – lack of insulin

2) Tetany – hyposecretion of Parathormones

3) Cretinism – congenital hypothyroidism

4) Pituitary dwarf – Sexually & intellectually normal

65. The experiment Semiconservative replication of DNA was discovered plant by Taylor and colleagues is not having following character.

1) Nodular roots

2) Descendingly imbricate aestivation

3) Parietal placentation

4) Non-endoseprmic seeds

66. Identify the incorrect Statement about Intra-uterine Devices (IUDs)

1) They inhibit menstruation & Ovulation

2) Promote phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus

3) Suppress the motility of spermatozoa

4) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation

67. The first animal for which a linkage map was constructed was

1) Drosophila

2) Rat

3) Neurospora

4) Pisum stativum

68.Select the correct sequence form the above w.r. to milk ejection in mammary glands in human females

Study the following:
a) lactiferous duct b) mammary tubules c) mammary ducts d) ampulla
e) alveoli f) nipple

1) e a b c d f

2) d c a b e f

3) e b c d a f

4) e c b a d f

69. select the mismatch from the following:
A) Hormone releasing IUD – Multiload 375
B) Copper releasing IUD – LNG-20
C) Steroidal oral contraceptive pill – Saheli
D) Semen isn’t produced – Vasectomy

1) A,B,C

2) B,D

3) A,D

4) all the above

70. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to

1) Discovery of genes

2)Principles of linkage

3)Chromosome theory of heredity

4) Rediscovery of mendelism

71.Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed which stage of human evolution?

1) Homo habilis

2) Homo erectus

3) Homo neanderthalensis

4) Ramapithecus

72. Common Nucleotides (nitrogen bases) which are present in both DNA and RNA

1) A C U

2) A G C

3) A T C

4) G C U

73. Which of the following exhibit adaptive radiation?

1) Placental mammals in Australia

2) Darwin Finches

3) Australian Marsupials

4) all the above

74. Some aminoacids are coded by more than one codon. This properity of genetic code is called

1) Unambiguous

2) Universal

3) Degenerate

4) Specific

75. Casparian bands containing layer is absent in

1) Monocot stem

2) dicot root

3) Monocot root

4) Dicot stem

76.Polymerase Chain Reaction:

1) Can detect HIV

2) Can detect very low amounts of DNA

3) Can detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients

4) All the above

77. Hydrophily is absent in

1) Vallisnera

2) Hydrilla

3) Water lily

4) Zostera

78. ‘Hisardale’ is an example of:

1) Out – Crossing

2) Cross – Breeding

3) Out – Breeding

4) Inter – Specific hybridization

79. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as

1) Cyanobacteria

2) Mycoplasmas

3) Chemoautotroph

4) Heterotrophic bacteria

80. In Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer method, fertilized eggs at which stage are transferred to surrogate mothers?

1) 4 -16 cells

2) 8 – 32 cells

3) 6 – 8 cells

4) 18 – 32 cells

81. Which statement is wrong for viruses

1) They contain either RNA or DNA

2) All are obligate parasites

3) They can synthesize nucleic acid and proteins

4) All of them have helical symmetry

82. Which of the biological function is not yet known

1) Protein synthesis

2) Photorespiration

3) Photosynthesis

4) Respiration

83. Trachea contains -------- epithelium

1) Ciliated Columnar

2) Non-Ciliated Columnar

3) Ciliated pseudo – stratified

4) Non- ciliated pseudo – stratified

84. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to its end

1) Acrocentric

2) Telocentric

3) Metacentric

4) Submetacentric

85. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. Identify it

1) Bronchitis

2) Asthma

3) Emphysema

4) None of the above

86. Which of the following hormone shows respiratory climatic

1) ABA

2) GA

3) Ethylene

4) cytokinins

87. Identify the wrong statement(s)
A) Since the origin of life on earth, there were six episodes of mass extinction of species
B) The current species extinction rates are many time faster than in the pre-human times
C) Ecologists warn that if the present trends of extinction were to be continued, about half of
all the species on earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years.
D) Biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by about 30 percent

1) A,B

2) C,D

3) Only A

4) Only D

88. Cell A with = -15 bars P =9bars, Cell B with = -10 bars P =8. bars The movement of water is from

→Add description here!

1) Both direction

2) A→ B

3) B→ A

4) Nomovement

89.Suppressed cotyledon present in maize is called

1) Scutellum

2) Epiblast

3) Plumule

4) Coleoptile

90. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration includes:

1) Inspiratory Reserve volume + Residual volume

2) Expiratory Reserve volume + Residual volume

3) Vital capacity + Residual volume

4) Expiratory Reserve volume + Tidal volume

91. Which of the would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks

1) Mosses

2) Lichens

3) Liver worts

4) Green algal

92. The disorder caused by decreased levels of Oestrogen in post-menopause women is

1) Osteoarthritis

2) Tetany

3) Osteoporosis

4) Myaesthenia gravis

93.Dual Function containing codon identifies the following aminoacid

1) Methionine

2) Glycine

3) serine

4) proline

94. Following diagram refers to the sectional view of cochlea, go through it carefully.

From the diagram A, B, C, D are, respectively, occupied by

1) Organ of corti, Basilar membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.

2) Organ of corti, Reissner’s membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.

3) Reissner’s membrane, Tectorial membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.

4) Organ of corti, tectorial membrane, Scala vestibuli, Scala tympani.

95.Which of the following is correct match

1) Sonalika – Rice

2) Jaya – Wheat

3) Himgiri – Wheat

4) Atlas66 – maize

96. Maize leads to presistance to maize stem borers due to

1) Low aspartic, acid, Low nitrogen and sugar content

2) High aspartic, high nitrogen and sugar

3) High aspartic low nitrogen and sugar

4) High aspartic, low nitrogen and high sugar

97. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II, and select correct option given below

Column I Column II
a.
b.
Ophrys
Calotropis
i. Cardiac glycoside
ii. Poisonous weed
c.
d.
Monarch butterfly
Warblers
iii. Sexual deceit
iv. Resource Partitioning

1) iii i ii iv

2) i iii iv ii

3) ii i iii iv

4) iv iii ii i

98. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of

1) ABA

2) 1AA

3) Cytotoknin

4) GA3

99. Vector control Research Centre

1) New Delhi

2) Lucknow

3) Puducherry

4) Mumbai

100. S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species has

1) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

2) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount DNA

3) Twice the number of chromosomes and Twice the amount of DNA

4) Four times the number of chromosomes and Twice the amount of DNA

101. The term ecosystem was coined by

1) E. Warming

2) Odum

3) Misra

4) A.G & Tansley

102. Which of the following is not included in periderm.

1) Phellem

2) Late wood

3) phelloderm

4) cork cambium

103. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

1) Relative proportions of purines & pyrimidines in DNA

2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

3) Relative amount of DNA in the ridges & grooves of fingerprints

4) All the above

104. Endosperm is n and 3n respectively in

1) Dicots, Monocots

2) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta

3) Gymnosperms, Dicots

4) Pteridophytes, Gymonosperms

105. The region of biosphere reserve where limited human activity is allowed for research, education and resource use strategies

1) Core Zone

2) Transition Zone

3) Buffer Zone

4) Restoration Zone

106. Which of the following RNA’s should be most abundant in animal cell

1) SnRNA

2) mRNA

3) collagen

4) Rrna

107. Identify the animal which isn’t a homeotherm:

1) Ornithorhyncus

2) Aptenodytes

3) Ichthyophis

4) Neophron

108. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 Amino acids and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered

1) 333

2) 666

3) 11

4) 33

109. Which of the following animal possess file-like rasping organ in its mouth?

1) Pleurobranchia

2) Alplysia

3) Pentaceros

4) Lepisma

110. What is the criteria for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel eletrophorosis

1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

2) Negatively charged fragments do not move

3) The larger the fragment the farther it moves

4) Positively charged fragments move to farther end

111.Observe the sigmoid curve given below and identify the phases A,B and C:

1) A= Initial slow growth, B= Rapid growth, C=Phase of growth during limited nutrient supply

2) A= Rapid growth, B= Initial slow growth, C=Phase of growth during limited nutrient supply

3) A=Lag Phase, B=Stationary phase, C= Exponential phase

4) A= Exponential phase, B=Stationary phase, C=Lag phase

112. Select the correct statements about Nutrient Cycles

A) The amount of nutrients, present in the soil at any given time is called ‘Standing Crop’
B) The function of the ‘reservoir’ (of different nutrient cycles) is to meet with the deficit which
occurs due to imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux.
c) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are equal to carbon inputs
D) Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible

1) B,D

2) C,D

3) A,B

4) A,C

113. Identify the enzyme X and Y?

1) X= RNA – ligase,Y= DNA ligase

2) X= Bam HI, Y=RNA-ligase

3) X= Eco RI,Y=DNA-ligase

4) X Hind III , Y= RNA – ligase

114. Study the following statements about Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, and identify the correct statement(s) .

1) It was amended by the Government of India in 2017

2) According to this Act, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain grounds within the first 12 Weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.

3) According to this Act, if the pregnancy has lasted between 12 weeks to 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical practitioners must be sought for the termination of pregnancy on certain grounds.

4) All the above.

115. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion in a horizontal plane. The radius of the circle is 10 cm. The centripetal force acting on the particle is 20 N. Its kinetic energy is

a) 0.1 J

(b) 0.2

(d) 1.0 J

116. If the speed of revolution of a particle on the circumference of a circle and in a separate case, the speed gained in falling through a distance equal to the radius are equal, then the centripetal acceleration will be

(a) g/2

(b) g/4

(d) 2g

117. Time period of revolution of a nearest satellite around a planet of radius R is T. Period of revolution around another planet, whose radius is 4R but having same density is

Add description here!

(a) T

(b)4T

d) 3 √ 3T

118. The increase in length on stretching a wire is 0.05%. If its Poisson's ratio is 0.2, then its diameter

(a) Reduce by 0.02%

(b) Reduce by 0.01%

(d) Decrease by 0.4%

119. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended from a spring balance. It weighs 10 N in air. It is suspended in water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of the spring balance is

(a) 10 N

(b) 9 N

(d) 5 N

120. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gas in the ratio of 1 : 4. The ratio of mean kinetic energies of hydrogen and oxygen molecules is

(a) 1 : 16

(b) 1 : 4

(d) 1 : 1

121. A wire of fixed length is turned to form a coil of one turn. It is again turned to form a coil of four turns. If in both cases same amount of current is passed, then the ratio of the intensities of magnetic field produced at thecentre of a coil will be

(a) 16 times of first case

(b) 1/9 times of first case

(d) 1/3 times of first case

122. What is the r.m.s. value of an alternating current which when passed through a resistor produces heat which is twice of that produced by a direct current of 2 amperes in the same resistor

(a) 6 amp

(b) 4 amp

(d) 0.66 amp

123. The resonant frequency of a circuit is f. If the capacitance is made 16 times the initial values, then the resonant frequency will become

ƒAdd description here!

(a)ƒ / 2

(b) 2ƒ

(d) ƒ/ 4

124. The ratio of areas within the electron orbits for the first excited state to the ground state for hydrogen atom is

(a) 16 : 1

(b) 20 : 1

(d) 8 : 1

125. A compound microscope has a magnifying power 30. The focal length of its eye-piece is 5 cm. Assuming the final image to be at the least distance of distinct vision. The magnification produced by the objective will be

(a) +5

(b) – 5

(d) – 4

126. In YDSE, a thin mica sheet of thickness 2 10 6 m and refractive index (= 1.5) is introduced in the path of the wave in front of the slit above the central line of the screen. The wavelength of the wave used is 5000Å. The central bright maximum will shift

a) 2 fringes upward

(b) 2 fringes downward

(d) 4 fringes downward

127. The path difference between two interfering waves of equal intensities at a point on the screen is ratio of intensity at this point and that at the central fringe will be

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(d) 1 : 8

128.. The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another radioactive element Y. Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then

a) X and Y decay at same rate always

b) X will decay faster than Y

d) X and Y have same decay rate initially

129. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?

(a) 1.4

(b) 2.0

(d) 4.0

130. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. ʎ1 and ʎ2 will be:

(a) λ1 = 1/2 λ2

(b) λ1 = λ2

(d) λ1 = 4λ2

131.. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be

(a) ns → np→(n -1)d → (n - 2)f

(b) ns → (n - 2)f → (n -1)d → np

(d) ns → (n - 2)f → np → (n -1)d

132.Total number of elements out of first 100 elements possessing 3 d electrons are:

(a) 10

(b)20

(d) 80

133. Which bond angle θ would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule XY2?

(a) 90º

(b) 120º

(d) 180º

134. The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it:

(a) increases the concentration of ions

(b) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(d) increases the solubility product of AgCl

135. Alkyl chloride and bromides can be converted into alkanes on treatment with Zn-Cu couple and alcohol due to reduction by:

(a) molecular hydrogen

(b) nascent hydrogen

(d) all statements are correct

136. In the oxoacids of chlorine,Cl-O bond contains:

(a) dπ-pπ bonding

(b) pπ-dπ boding

c) pπ-pπ bonding

(d) none

137. In the Duma’s method for the estimation of nitrogen, 0.84 g of an organic compound Gave 448 mL of nitrogen at STP. The % of N in the compound is:

(a) 33.3%

(b) 66.7%

(d) 60%

138. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is

(a) 1 atm

(b) 0.5 atm

(d) 0.9 atm

139. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?

(a) Order of reaction is always whole number

(b) Order can be determined only experimentally

(d) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction

140. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to:

(a) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu

(b) The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge

(d) Since lanthanoids are rare earths

141. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Manganese

(d) Silicon

142. AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length 'a' equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is:

(a) 335 pm

(b) 250 pm

(d) 300 pm

143. Largest spermatozoids in plant kingdom

(a) Pinus

(b) Selaginella

d) Cycas

144. Thallophyta includes

(a) Fungi and bacteria

b) Algae, fungi, bacteria and lichens

(c)Algae, fungi and lichens

(d) Algae and fungi

145. A unicellular organism often considered connecting link between plants and animals is

(a) Monocystis

(b) Paramecium

(d) Entamoeba

146. Capitulum inflorescence is found in

(a) Malvaceae

(b) Fabaceae

(d) Compositae

147. Blood does not transport oxygen due to absence of respiratory pigment in

(a) Cockroach

(b) Earthworm

(d) Rabbit

148. Bond between two residues of carbohydrates is

(a) Amide

(b) Phosphodiester

d) Hydrogen bond

149. A unit membrane is absent over

(a) Lysosome

(b) Microbody

c) Golgi apparatus

(d) Ribosome

150. Synaptonemal complex is site of

(a) Spindle attachment

(b) Replication

(d) Chromosome alignment and recombination

151. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of

a) Ascorbic acid/Vit C

(b) Nicotinic acid/ Vit B3/Niacin

(d) Folic Acid

152. In C4 plants, synthesis of sugars / final CO2 fixation occurs in

(a) Palisade cells

(b) Spongy cells

(d) Bundle sheath cells

153. Gastric juice contains

(a) Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin

(b) Trypsin, Lipase and Rennin

(d) Trypsin, Pepsin and Rennin

154. Element involved in the opening and closing of stomata, stomatal regulation is

(a) Zinc

(b) Magnesium

(d) Iron

155. The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs, with each normal inspiration and expiration is called

(a) Residual volume

(b) Vital capacity

(d) Tidal capacity

156. Number of Calvin cycles required to generate a molecule of Hexose is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(d) 8

157. In germinating seed , RQ falls when there is shift from

(a) Carbohydrate to fat as substrate

(b) Fat to carbohydrate

(d) Protein to carbohydrate

158. Find out the correct matching

(a) Thyroid – hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism

(b) Parathyroid – secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ion from blood into bones during calcification

(d) Pancreas – delta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolyisis in the liver.

159. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is

(a) Chalazogamy

(b) Mesogamy

(d) Pseudogamy

160. Sarcomere is distance between

a) Two I – bands

(b) A and I bands

(d) Z and A bands

161. Which one of the following has minimum pH?

(a) Bile

b) Pancreatic juice

(d) Gastric juice

162. How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1 ,after S and M phase respectively if it has 14 chromosomes at interphase?

a) 7,14,14

(b) 14,14,14

(d) 7,7,7

163. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was put forward by

(a) Danielli and Daveson

(b) Singer and Nicolson

(d) Watson and Crick

164. When stamens are fused by their anthers and their filaments are free, the condition is called

(a) Monadelphous

(b) Synandrous

(d) Epipetalous

165. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by

(a) De Vries

(b) Carl Linnaeus

(d) John Ray

166. In Whittaker’s classification, non-nucleated unicellular organisms/prokaryotes are included under

(a) Plantae

(b) Monera

d) Animalia

167. Filariasis is transmitted through / secondary host of Wuchereria is

(a) Anopheles

(b) Culex

(d) Sand fly

168. Quiescent center in the middle of the root apical meristem was discovered by

(a) Eames

(b) Schmidt

(d) Hanstein

169. Characteristic free swimming larvae of Coelenterates is

(a) Oncosphere

(b) Rhabditiform

(d) Cysticercus

170. Velamen occurs in

(a) Epiphytes

(b) Mesophytes

(d) Xerophytes

171. Striated and voluntary muscles occur in

(a) Trachea

(b) Lungs

(d) Limbs

172. Streaming of cytoplasm within a living cell is

(a) Homeostasis

(b) Cyclosis

(d) Osmoregulation

173. Storage product of most algae is

(a) Fat

(b) Starch

(d) Cellulose

174. Polymorphic cell organelle is

A. Glyoxysome

(b) Peroxisome

(d) Golgi complex

175. A prehensile tail in Chameleon is an adaptation for

(a) Swimming

(b) Sliding

(d) Climbing

176. Spindle fibres arise from

(a) Centrioles

(b) Centromeres

(d) Mitochondria

177. Combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme produces

(a) Prosthetic group

(b) Holoenzyme

(d) Enzyme-product complex

178. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is secreted by pituitary

(a) Anterior lobe

(b)Intermediate lobe

(d) Not any particular lobe

179. The hormone melatonin, which is involved in skin blanching in lower vertebrates, is released from the

(a)anterior pituitary gland

(b)pineal gland

(c)melanocytes

(d)hypothalamus

180. Polygonum type of embryo sac / typical female gametophyte of angiosperm is

(a)7 – celled, 7 – nucleate

(b) 7 – celled, 8 – nucleate

(d) 8 – celled, 8 – nucleate

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