NEET-3 Kindly Submit Your Details, Then You Can Start Your Test !! Name Mobile No. Email City State Country Course 1. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals. (1) Potassium (2) Iron (3) Copper (4) Calcium 2. Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide ? (1) It is produced due to incomplete combustion. (2) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin (3) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood. (4) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin. 3. Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ? (1) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] (2) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] (3) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] (4) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16] 4. Paper chromatography is an example of (1) Column chromatography (2) Adsorption chromatography (3) Partition chromatography (4) Thin layer chromatography 5. Which of the following is a natural polymer? (1) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) (2) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene (3) poly (Butadiene-styrene) (4) polybutadiene 6. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is (1) Chloroethane + Bromoethane (2) Ethanol + Acetone (3) Benzene + Toluene (4) Acetone + Chloroform 7. Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC Official Name(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium (1) (d), (iv) (2) (a), (i) (3) (b), (ii) (4) (c), (iii) 8. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment? (1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (2) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene 9. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places) : (1) 0.60 K (2) 0.20 K (3) 0.80 K (4) 0.40 K 10. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution? (1) Size of the colloidal particles (2) Viscosity (3) Solubility (4) Stability of the colloidal particles 11. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction? (1) n-Butane (2) n-Hexane (3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (4) n-Heptane 12. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in (1) collision frequency (2) activation energy (3) heat of reaction (4) threshold energy 13. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as (1) Cross Aldol condensation (2) Aldol condensation (3) Cannizzaro’s reaction (4) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction 14. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : (1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Isopropyl alcohol (3) Sec. butyl alcohol (4) Tert. butyl alcohol 15. Which of the following is a cationic detergent? (1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate (3) Sodium stearate (4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 16. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of (1) Natural selection (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Convergent evolution (4) Industrial melanism 17. Floridean starch has structure similar to (1) Laminarin and cellulose (2) Starch and cellulose (3) Amylopectin and glycogen (4) Mannitol and algin 18. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their (1) Effect on reproduction (2) Nutritive value (3) Growth response (4) Defence action 19. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is (1) Plasmolysis (2) Transpiration (3) Root pressure (4) Imbibition 20. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. (1) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (2) The gene (I) has three alleles. (3) A person will have only two of the three alleles. (4) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar. 21. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during (1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene (3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene 22. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment? (1) Activated sludge (2) Primary sludge (3) Floating debris (4) Effluents of primary treatment 23. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :Hemichordata, Tunicata andCephalochordata. (1) (b) and (c) (2) (d) and (c) (3) (c) and (a) (4) (a) and (b) 24. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases. (1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria 25. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in (1) Eustachian tube (2) Lining of intestine (3) Ducts of salivary gland (4) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron 26. Identify the category of plant and its part : The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed (d) Phloem parenchyma absentIdentify the category of plant and (1) Dicotyledonous root (2) Monocotyledonous stem (3) Monocotyledonous root (4) Dicotyledonous stem 27. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams? (1) Inbreeding (2) Out crossing (3) Mutational breeding (4) Cross breeding 28. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of (1) Disposal of e-wastes (2) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances (4) Release of Green House gases 29. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about (1) 7 million (2) 1.5 million (3) 20 million (4) 50 million 30. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes. (1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases. (2) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites. (4) They are useful in genetic engineering. 31. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents (1) Repolarisation of ventricles (2) Repolarisation of auricles (3) Depolarisation of auricles (4) Depolarisation of ventricles 32. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure (1) Inulin, insulin (2) Chitin, cholesterol (3) Glycerol, trypsin (4) Cellulose, lecithin 33. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity? (1) Amazon forests (2) Western Ghats of India (3) Madagascar (4) Himalayas 34. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy? (1) Para-ascorbic acid (2) Gibberellic acid (3) Abscisic acid (4) Phenolic acid 35. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because (1) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body. (2) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen. (3) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (4) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body. 36. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is (1) Three (2) Zero (3) One (4) Two 37. The process of growth is maximum during (1) Dormancy (2) Log phase (3) Lag phase (4) Senescence 38. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits? (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 14 39. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of (1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light (3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation 40. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (1) Valine (2) Tyrosine (3) Glutamic Acid (4) Lysine 41. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis? (1) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells (2) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH (3) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone (4) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction 42. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to (1) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (2) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature (3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation (4) High reflection of light from snow 43. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to (1) Insect predators (2) Insect pests (3) Fungal diseases (4) Plant nematodes 44. Which of the following is correct about viroids? (1) They have free DNA without protein coat (2) They have RNA with protein coat (3) They have free RNA without protein coat (4) They have DNA with protein coat 45. Ray florets have (1) Half inferior ovary (2) Inferior ovary (3) Superior ovary (4) Hypogynous ovary 46. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive? (1) GIFT and ICSI (2) ZIFT and IUT (3) GIFT and ZIFT (4) ICSI and ZIFT 47. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other (a) Pollen grains inside the anther(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes(c) Seed inside the fruit(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) only (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) 48. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population? (1) Species interaction (2) Sex ratio (3) Natality (4) Mortality 49. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed (1) Recognition site (2) Selectable marker (3) Ori site (4) Palindromic sequence 50. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by (1) Morgan (2) Mendel (3) Sutton (4) Boveri 51. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are (1) Ammonia and hydrogen (2) Ammonia alone (3) Nitrate alone (4) Ammonia and oxygen 52. Identify the incorrect statement. (1) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour (2) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support (3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf (4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour 53. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct? (1) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity (2) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity (3) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity (4) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same 54. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs. (1) only (d) (2) only (a) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d) 55. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle? (1) Low concentration of FSH (2) High concentration of Estrogen (3) High concentration of Progesterone (4) Low concentration of LH 56. Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli. (2) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin (3) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide. (4) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds. 57. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by (1) Oparin (2) Karl Ernst von Baer (3) Alfred Wallace (4) Charles Darwin 58. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus? (1) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (2) Uremia and Ketonuria (3) Uremia and Renal Calculi (4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria 59. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of (1) pepsinogen into pepsin (2) protein into polypeptides (3) trypsinogen into trypsin (4) caseinogen into casein 60. Strobili or cones are found in (1) Equisetum (2) Salvini (3) Pteris (4) Marchantia 61. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed (1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum (2) Prior to ovulation (3) At the time of copulation (4) After zygote formation 62. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at (1) Chalaza (2) Hilum (3) Micropyle (4) Nucellus 63. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from (1) Compound epithelial cells (2) Squamous epithelial cells (3) Columnar epithelial cells (4) Chondrocytes 64. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect? (1) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm (2) They are not bound by any membrane (3) These are involved in ingestion of food particles (4) They lie free in the cytoplasm 65. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop. (1) Abscisic acid (2) Cytokinin (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene 66. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system. (1) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum (2) IIeum opens into small intestine (3) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal (4) IIeum is a highly coiled part 67. The ovary is half inferior in : (1) Plum (2) Brinjal (3) Mustard (4) Sunflower 68. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is (1) Male gametocytes (2) Trophozoites (3) Sporozoites (4) Female gametocytes 69. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity. (1) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity. (2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”. (3) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”. (4) Active immunity is quick and gives full response. 70. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells? (1) Polysomes (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Peroxisomes (4) Golgi bodies 71. The first phase of translation is (1) Recognition of an anti-codon (2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (3) Recognition of DNA molecule (4) Aminoacylation of tRNA 72. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription. (1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase (3) DNA helicase (4) DNA polymerase 73. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are (1) Lateral roots (2) Fibrous roots (3) Primary roots (4) Prop roots 74. Select the correct statement. (1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia. (2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. (3) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. (4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes. 75. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by (1) Annelida (2) Ctenophora (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes 76. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of (1) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound (2) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (3) 1 molecule of 3-C compound (4) 1 molecule of 6-C compound 77. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals? (1) Insulin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Collagen (4) Lectin 78. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae? (1) Chlorella and Spirulina (2) Laminaria and Sargassum (3) Gelidium and Gracilaria (4) Anabaena and Volvox 79. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by : (1) Insects and water (2) Insects or wind (3) Water currents only (4) Wind and water 80. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Adenine does not pair with thymine (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds 81. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be: (1) 537 Hz (2) 523 Hz (3) 524 Hz (4) 536 Hz 82. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled? (1) zero (2) doubled (3) four times (4) one-fourth 83. For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct? (1) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped. (2) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations. (3) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size. (4) Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased. 84. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is : (1) 20.0 g (2) 2.5 g (3) 5.0 g (4) 10.0 g 85. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of : (1) 80 cm (2) 33 cm (3) 50 cm (4) 67 cm 86. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is : (1) isobaric (2) isothermal (3) adiabatic (4) isochoric 87. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are: (1) insulators and semiconductors (2) metals (3) insulators only (4) semiconductors only 88. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth? (1) 24 N (2) 48 N (3) 32 N (4) 30 N 89. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is : (1) 1.0 mm (2) 0.01 mm (3) 0.25 mm (4) 0.5 mm 90. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes : (1) one-fourth (2) double (3) half (4) four times 91. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will: (1) Move away from each other (2) Will become stationary (3) Keep floating at the same distance between them (4) Move towards each other 92. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system (1) Remains the same (2) Increases by a factor of 2 (3) Increases by a factor of 4 (4) Decreases by a factor of 2 93. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s] (1) 411 Hz 2) 448 Hz (3) 350 Hz (4) 361 Hz 94. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value 10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is (1) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J (2) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J (3) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J (4) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J 95. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be (1) 1000 (2) 1800 (3) 225 (4) 450 96. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load. (1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (b) 97. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because the method involves : (1) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer (2) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances (3) Cells (4) Potential gradients 98. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is (1) Turner's syndrome (2) Sickle cell anemia (3) Down's syndrome (4) Klinefelter's syndrome 99. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: (1) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (2) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (3) Autogamy and xenogamy (4) Autogamy and geitonogamy 100. Attractants and rewards are required for (1) Hydrophily (2) Cleistogamy (3) Anemophily (4) Entomophily 101. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time (1) Species area relationships (2) Population Growth equation (3) Ecological Biodiversity (4) Laws of limiting factor 102. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP? (1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondrion (3) Lysosome (4) Ribosome 103. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of (1) Funaria (2) Chlamydomonas (3) Marchantia (4) Fucus 104. Select the best option from the following statements Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (c) and (d) 105. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea? (1) Seed – Green or Yellow (2) Pod – Inflated or Constricted (3) Stem – Tall or Dwarf (4) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular 106. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates: (1) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre (2) The DNA double helix is exposed (3) Transcription is occurring (4) DNA replication is occurring 107. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of (1) Synovial joint (2) Saddle joint (3) Fibrous joint (4) Cartilaginous joint 108. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on (1) Tips of axons (2) Post-synaptic membrane (3) Membranes of synaptic vesicles (4) Pre-synaptic membrane 109. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on (1) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH (2) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin 3) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin (4) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH 110. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because (1) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults (2) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth (3) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults (4) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence 111. Select the mismatch : (1) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer (2) Rhizobium – Alfalfa (3) Frankia – Alnus (4) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza 112. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols? (1) They cause increased agricultural productivity (2) They have negative impact on agricultural land (3) They are harmful to human health (4) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns 113. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants? (1) Amazon rainforest (2) Himalayan region (3) Wildlife Safari parks (4) Biodiversity hot spots 114. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture? (1) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells (2) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells (3) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells (4) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells 115. Select the mismatch : (1) Salvinia – Heterosporous (2) Equisetum – Homosporous (3) Pinus – Dioecious (4) Cycas – Dioecious 116. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when (1) K > N (2) K < N (3) The value of 'r' approaches zero (4) K = N 117. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called (1) Bioprocessing (2) Postproduction processing (3) Upstream processing (4) Downstream processing 118. The water potential of pure water is (1) More than zero but less than one (2) More than one (3) Zero (4) Less than zero 119. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is : (1) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation (2) They inhibit ovulation (3) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms (4) They inhibit gametogenesis 120. Double fertilization is exhibited by (1) Fungi (2) Angiosperms (3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae 121. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in : (1) Grassland (2) Temperate Forest (3) Tropical Savannah (4) Tropical Rain Forest 122. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass? (1) Pond ecosystem (2) Lake ecosystem (3) Forest ecosystem (4) Grassland ecosystem 123. Root hairs develop from the region of (1) Root cap (2) Meristematic activity (3) Maturation (4) Elongation 124. DNA replication in bacteria occurs (1) Prior to fission (2) Just before transcription (3) During S-phase (4) Within nucleolus 125. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by (1) mating of individuals of different breed (2) mating of individuals of different species (3) mating of related individuals of same breed (4) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed 126. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of (1) Stem (2) Leaf (3) Stipules (4) Adventitious root 127. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of (1) Aldosterone (2) ADH (3) Renin (4) Atrial Natriuretic Factor 128. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur? (1) Chromosomes will not segregate (2) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur (3) Chromosomes will not condense (4) Chromosomes will be fragmented 129. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (1) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin (2) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-peptidase (3) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin (4) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase 130. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are (1) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic (2) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic (3) Haplontic, Diplontic (4) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic 131. Which of the following is made up of dead cells? (1) Phellem (2) Phloem (3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Collenchyma 132. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them? (1) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (3) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics (4) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid 133. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of (1) Auxins (2) Gibberellic acid (3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene 134. Viroids differ from viruses in having : (1) RNA molecules with protein coat (2) RNA molecules without protein coat (3) DNA molecules with protein coat (4) DNA molecules without protein coat 135. Which of the following are not polymeric? (1) Polysaccharides (2) Lipids (3) Nucleic acids (4) Proteins 136. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is (1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus allatum (3) Pineal gland (4) Corpus cardiacum 137. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to (1) Psammophytes (2) Hydrophytes (3) Mesophytes (4) Halophytes 138. Mycorrhizae are the example of (1) Antibiosis (2) Mutualism (3) Fungistasis (4) Amensalism 139. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered? (1) 33 (2) 333 (3) 1 (4) 11 140. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as (1) Plasmid (2) Structural gene (3) Selectable marker (4) Vector 141. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Mycobacteria (3) Archaebacteria (4) Eubacteria 142. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body (1) 70% (2) 10% (3) 50% (4) 20% 143. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments? (1) 1857 - 1869 (2) 1870 - 1877 (3) 1856 - 1863 (4) 1840 - 1850 144. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature? (a) They do not need to reproduce(b) They are somatic cells(c) They do not metabolize(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Only (d) (4) Only (a) 145. Myelin sheath is produced by (1) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts (2) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes (3) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes (4) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells 146. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water (2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes (3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water 147. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to enlongate (1) The leading strand away from replication fork (2) The lagging strand away from the replication fork (3) The leading strand towards replication fork (4) The lagging strand towards replication fork 148. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes? (1) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (2) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor (3) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme (4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme 149. DNA fragments are (1) Neutral (2) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size (3) Positively charged (4) Negatively charged 150. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with (1) Aniline blue (2) Ethidium bromide (3) Bromophenol blue (4) Acetocarmine 151. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? (1) Mycoplasma (2) Nostoc (3) Bacillus (4) Pseudomonas 152. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is (1) Endosperm (2) Pericarp (3) Perisperm (4) Cotyledon 153. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood. (1) It conducts water and minerals efficiently (2) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls (3) Organic compounds are deposited in it (4) It is highly durable 154. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections? (1) Hormonal immune response (2) Physiological immune response (3) Autoimmune response (4) Cell-mediated immune response 155. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as (1) Transition zone (2) Restoration zone (3) Core zone (4) Buffer zone 156. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement. (1) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules (2) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules (3) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis (4) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis 157. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by (1) Wind (2) Bat (3) Water (4) Bee 158. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is (1) Pharynx with gill slits (2) Pharynx without gill slits (3) Absence of notochord (4) Ventral tubular nerve cord 159. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of (1) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (2) Hargobind Khorana (3) Griffith (4) Hershey and Chase 160. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis? (1) Positively charged fragments move to farther end (2) Negatively charged fragments do not move (3) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves (4) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves 161. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents (1) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one yielding higher output and the other lower output (2) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows (3) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population (4) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction 162. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids? (1) Primary treatment (2) Sludge treatment (3) Tertiary treatment (4) Secondary treatment 163. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of (1) Animals (2) Bacteria (3) Plants (4) Fungi 164. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into (1) Embryo sac (2) Embryo (3) Ovule (4) Endosperm 165. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? (1) Plasma membrane (2) Glycocalyx (3) Cell wall (4) Nuclear membrane 166. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? (1) Whales, Dolphins Seals (2) Trygon, Whales, Seals (3) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks (4) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon 167. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'? (1) Caballus (2) Ferus (3) Equidae (4) Perissodactyla 168. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of : (1) Tidal Volume (2) Expiratory Reserve Volume (3) Residual Volume (4) Inspiratory Reserve Volume 169. Capacitation occurs in (1) Vas deferens (2) Female Reproductive tract (3) Rete testis (4) Epididymis 170. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell? (1) m-RNA (2) mi-RNA (3) r-RNA (4) t-RNA 171. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme? (1) Zymogen cells (2) Kupffer cells (3) Argentaffin cells (4) Paneth cells 172. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation? (1) Artificial Insemination (2) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (3) Intrauterine transfer (4) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer 173. Select the best option from the following statements Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for some time(a) Frog is a poikilotherm(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature(d) Heart is autoexcitable (1) (a) & (b) (2) (c) & (d) (3) Only (c) (4) Only (d) 174. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from (1) Kidneys (2) Intestine (3) Heart (4) Stomach 175. Coconut fruit is a (1) Nut (2) Capsule (3) Drupe (4) Berry 176. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to (1) Secondary xylem (2) Periderm (3) Phelloderm (4) Primary phloem 177. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called : 1) Choanocytes (2) Mesenchymal cells (3) Ostia (4) Oscula 178. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? (1) Pre-molars (2) Molars (3) Incisors (4) Canines 179. An example of colonial alga is (1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlorella (4) Volvox 180. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is (1) Ferrocene (2) Cobaltocene (3) Ruthenocene (4) Grignard's reagent Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451 Time's up