GRE-3

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Q.1 Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning to the key word.
ANTAGONIST:

(1) Hostile

(2) Pluralistic

(3) Mockery

Q.2 Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning to the key word.
APPERTAIN:

(1) Give up

(2) Offence

(3) To be Appropriate

(4) Thankful

Q.3 Ram is showing signs of senility.

Read the sentence and choose the antonyms of the Underlined Word among the alternative words or phrases as (1), (2), (3) and (4).

(1) Virility

(2) Laziness

(3) Maturity

(4) Exhaustion

Q.4 The superintendent looked very grumpy.

Read the sentence and choose the antonyms of the Underlined Word among the alternative words or phrases as (1), (2), (3) and (4).

(1) Surly

(2) Pleasant

(3) Efficient

(4) Honest

Q.5 Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
LURID:

(1) Murky

(2) Dismal

(3) Ignorant

(4) Mild

Q.6 Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
MANIFEST:

(1) Unmistakable

(2) Apparent

(3) Obscure

(4) Irrelavant

Q.7 Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the capitalised word.
SHAM:

(1) Rubbish

(2) Lovable

(3) Pretence

(4) Guilty

Q.8 In the following question pick the wrong spelt word.

(1) Autopsy

(2) Autocratic

(3) Akward

(4) Asylum

Q.9 We learn from the passage that:

Drug addicts in some countries form small groups, the customs of which may be unknown to outsiders. They often speak a language that is so full of expressions and words created by themselves that their speech has become unintelligible to those that are not living, or in some way associated, with them. It is amazing to find that, to understand some of today's so-called pop music, one requires some acquaintance with the peculiar language of those enslaved to drugs. A great part of the vocabulary is international with a preponderance of American terms or corruptions of these. This makes it easy for those in search of drug in a country not their own to communicate with those that have some to dispose of.

(1) All pop singers like drugs (2) Many pop musicians often

(2) Many pop musicians often use the code language of drug addicts

(3) Pop music is understood by drug users only

(4) All drug users compose music

Q.10 The drug users' speech is unintelligible to other because:

(1) It is incoherent

(2) The use of drugs has affected their pronunciation

(3) Their language has peculiar words and expressions

(4) They communicate only among themselves

Q.11 Drug addicts:

(1) Get easily assimilated in the society in which they live

(2) Have their own culture

(3) Imitate American culture

(4) Are cultural American culture

Q.12 The international nature of their vocabulary helps drug addicts to:

(1) Buy drugs from one another with ease

(2) Get to know one another better

(3) Pass for Americans

(4) Conceal their nationalities

Q.13 According to the passage, it is wrong to conclude that:

(1) Drug users have evolved a language

(2) Drug users form small groups

(3) Some drug users travel outside their own countries

(4) All drug addicts are Americans

Q.14 Mr. Nehru's speeches always brought out his ....... for India and the well being of its ...........:

In the following sentences one or two words are missing. From the four choices select the choice that fits in best with the rest of the sentence.

(1) Sadness, forests

(2) Greatness, residents

(3) Joy, land

(4) Love, people

Q.15 Men with great ........ and knowledge are usually very polite and ........:

(1) Wisdom, humble

(2) Ambition, obsure

(3) Wealth, cruel

(4) Foresight, sad

Q.16 The friend writes faster ..........:

the following questions, fill in the blanks by selecting a choice which is in keeping with good English usage.

(1) Than me

(2) Than myself

(3) Than I

(4) Than self

Q.17 ......... the grace of God we all reach safe and sound:

In the following questions, fill in the blanks by selecting a choice which is in keeping with good English usage.

(1) By

(2) Due

(3) On

(4) From

Q.18 The courier company luckily delivered the letter ........:

In the following questions, fill in the blanks by selecting a choice which is in keeping with good English usage.

(1) Rightly on time

(2) Right on time

(3) On right time

(4) Right by time

Q.19 He requested her ........ five rupees:

In the questions choose the correct alternative answer to complete the sentence.

(1) To lend her

(2) To borrow her

(3) To lend him

(4) To borrow him

Q.20 I first ........ him in 1966:

In the questions choose the correct alternative answer to complete the sentence.

(1) Meet

(2) Have met

(3) Met

(4) Had met

Q.21 A net force FA acts on object A, and a net force FB acts on object B. The mass of object B is twice the mass of object A, and the acceleration of object B is twice that of object A. Which of the following is true of forces FA and FB ?

Q.22 Two simple pendulums A and B consist of identical masses suspended from strings of length LA and LB , respectively. The two pendulums oscillate in equal gravitational fields. If the period of pendulum B is twice the period of pendulum A, which of the following is true of the lengths of the two pendulums?

Q.23 For the circuit shown in the figure above, what is the current i through the 2 W resistor?

(A) 2 A

(B) 4 A

(D) 10 A

Q.24 By definition, the electric displacement current through a surface S is proportional to the

(A) magnetic flux through S

(B) rate of change of the magnetic flux through S

(D) rate of change of the electric flux through S

Q.25 For which of the following thermodynamic processes is the increase in the internal energy of an ideal gas equal to the heat added to the gas?

(A) Constant temperature

(B) Constant volume

(D) Adiabatic

Q.26 The root-mean-square speed of molecules in an ideal gas of molar mass M at temperature T is

Q.27 Light of variable frequency n shines on the metal surface of a photoelectric tube. Einstein’s theory of the photoelectric effect predicts that the

(A) work function of the metal is proportional to the frequency

(B) work function of the metal is proportional to the wavelength

(D) potential difference necessary to stop the emitted electrons is a linear function of the frequency above the threshold frequency

Q.28 Characteristic X rays, appearing as sharp lines on a continuous background, are produced when high-energy electrons bombard a metal target. Which of the following processes results in the characteristic X rays?

(A) Electrons producing Čerenkov radiation

(B) Electrons colliding with phonons in the metal

(D) Electrons combining with protons to form neutrons

Q.29 A particle of mass m is confined inside a one-dimensional box (infinite square well) of length a. The particle’s ground state energy is which of the following?

Q.30 The speed of light inside of a nonmagnetic dielectric material with a dielectric constant of 4.0 is

(A) 1.2 ¥ 109 m/s

(B) 3.0 ¥ 108 m/s

(D) 1.0 ¥ 108 m/s

Q.31 Fermat’s principle of ray optics states, “A ray of light follows the path between two points which requires the least time.” This principle can be used to derive which of the following?

Snell’s law of refraction
The law of reflection
Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) I and II

Q.32 Two identical satellites, A and B, are in circular orbits around Earth. The orbital radius of A is twice that of B. Which of the following gives the ratio of the angular momentum of A to the angular momentum of B ?

√Add description here!

(A) 4

(B) 2

(D) √4

Q.33 A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction at a speed of 1 m/s. At one point, a constant force is applied to the box in the direction of its motion. The box travels 5 m with the constant force applied. The force is then removed, leaving the box with a speed of 2 m/s. Which of the following gives the magnitude of the applied force?

(A) 1 N

(B) 2 N

(D) 4 N

Q.34 The emission spectrum of the doubly ionized lithium atom Li⁺⁺ (Z = 3, A = 7) is identical to that of a hydrogen atom in which all the wavelengths are

(A) decreased by a factor of 9

(B) decreased by a factor of 49

(D) increased by a factor of 9

Q.35 Consider the kinetic energy operator Tˆ and the Hamiltonian operator Hˆ above. Which of the following pairs of observables can be measured simultaneously with no restriction on their precision?

A. xˆ and pˆ

B. xˆ and Tˆ

C. Hˆ and pˆ

D. Tˆ and pˆ

Q.36 Electromagnetic radiation emitted from a nucleus is most likely to be in the form of

(A) gamma rays

(B) microwaves

(D) visible light

Q.37 A sample of nitrogen gas undergoes the cyclic thermodynamic process shown above. Which of the following gives the net heat transferred to the system in one complete cycle 1 Æ 2 Æ 3 Æ 1 ?

(A) -80 J

(B) -40 J

(D) 80 J

Q.38 For an ideal gas, consider the three thermodynamic processes— labeled 1, 2, and 3 — shown in the PV diagram above. Each process has the same initial state and the same final volume. One process is adiabatic, one is isobaric, and one is isothermal. Which of the following correctly identifies the three processes?

(A) 1 2 3

(B) 2 1 3

(D) 3 1 2

Q.39 The driver of a police car hears an echo of the car’s siren from a wall toward which the car is moving with a speed of 3.5 m/s. If the speed of sound is 350 m/s and the frequency of the siren is 600 Hz, the driver hears the echo at a frequency nearest to which of the following?

(A) 588 Hz

(B) 594 Hz

(D) 612 Hz

Q.40 The first five harmonics produced by an organ pipe open at both ends are 50 Hz, 100 Hz, 150 Hz, 200 Hz, and 250 Hz. Which of the harmonics, if any, will survive once the pipe is closed at one end?

(A) 50 Hz, 150 Hz, and 250 Hz only

(B) 100 Hz and 200 Hz only

(D) None

Q.41 A refracting telescope consists of two converging lenses separated by 100 cm. The eye-piece lens has a focal length of 20 cm. The angular magnification of the telescope is

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 20

Q.42 The best type of laser with which to do spectroscopy over a range of visible wavelengths is

(A) a dye laser

(B) a helium-neon laser

(D) a ruby laser

Q.43 A rod measures 1.00 m in its rest system. How fast must an observer move parallel to the rod to measure its length to be 0.80 m?

(A) 0.50c

(B) 0.60c

(D) 0.80c

Q.44 A particle decays in 2.0 ms in its rest frame. If the same particle moves at u = 0.60c in the lab frame, how far will it travel in the lab before frame, how far will it travel in the lab before

(A) 150 m

(B) 288 m

(D) 450 m

Q.45 The rest mass of a particle with total energy 5.0 GeV and momentum 4.9 GeV/c is approximately

(A) 0.1 GeV/c2

(B) 0.2 GeV/c2

(D) 1.0 GeV/c2

Q.46 The quantum efficiency of a photon detector is 0.1. If 100 photons are sent into the detector, one after the other, the detector will detect photons

(A) exactly 10 times

(B) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 0.1

(D) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 3

Q.47 Two students perform an experiment in which they drop a ball from rest from a known height above the ground and measure the speed of the ball just before it strikes the ground. From repeated measurement, the students estimate the uncertainty in the measured speed of the ball to be 10 percent. Which of the following gives the uncertainty in the kinetic energy of the ball? (Assume the uncertainty in the ball’s mass is negligibly small.)

(A) 5%

(B) 10%

(D) 20%

Q.48 A particle in an infinite square well has as its initial wave function an equal mixture of the first three orthonormal stationary states: Y(x,0) = A[y1 (x ) + y2 (x) + y3 (x)] . The value of the normalization constant A is equal to which of the following?

Q.49 Spring 1 has force constant k1 and spring 2 has force constant k2 , where k1 > k2 . If the same external force is applied to both springs, which of the following is true about the extensions ( Dx1 and Dx2 ) and the stored potential energies ( U1 and U2 ) of the two springs?

(A) Dx1 < Dx2 U1 < U2

(B) Dx1 U2

(D) Dx1 = Dx2 U1 = U2

(E) Dx1 > Dx2 U1 = U2

Q.50 A stone is glued to the top of a light wooden block that floats in a pool of water, as shown in Figure 1 above. Assume that exactly 50 percent of the block is under water, and that the stone has half the weight of the block. If the block and stone are flipped over, as shown in Figure 2, and replaced in the pool, the amount of the block under water will be

(A) less than 50%

(B) still 50%

(D) between 75% and 100%

Q.51 Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given, and select one of the following four answer choices:

A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Q.52 If 5x + 32 = 4 – 2x, what is the value of x ?

A. –4

B. –3

C. 4

D. 7

Q.53 Which of the following numbers is farthest from the number 1 on the number line?

A. –10

B. –5

C. 0

D. 5

Q.54 The figure above shows the graph of the function f defined by f (x) = |2x| + 4 for all numbers x. For which of the following functions g, defined for all numbers x, does the graph of g intersect the graph of f?

A. g(x) = x – 2

B. g(x) = x – 2

C. g(x) = 2x – 2

D. g(x) = 3x – 2

Q.55 A car got 33 miles per gallon using gasoline that cost $2.95 per gallon. Approximately what was the cost, in dollars, of the gasoline used in driving the car 350 miles?

A. $10

B. $20

C. $30

D. $40

Q.56 A certain jar contains 60 jelly beans—22 white, 18 green, 11 yellow, 5 red, and 4 purple. If a jelly bean is to be chosen at random, what is the probability that the jelly bean will be neither red nor purple?

A. 0.09

B. 0.15

C. 0.54

D. 0.85

Q.57 Which two of the following numbers have a product that is between –1 and 0 ? Indicate both of the numbers.

A -20

B -10

C 4

D 5

Q.58 Which two of the following numbers have a product that is between –1 and 0 ? Indicate both of the numbers.

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 18

Q.59 Each employee of a certain company is in either Department X or Department Y, and there are more than twice as many employees in Department X as in Department Y. The average (arithmetic mean) salary is $25,000 for the employees in Department X and $35,000 for the employees in Department Y. Which of the following amounts could be the average salary for all of the employees of the company?

Indicate all such amounts.

A. $26,000

B. $28,000

C. $30,000

D. $32,000

Q.60 Which of the following could be the units digit of 57ⁿ, where n is a positive integer?
Indicate all such

A 1

B 2

C 7

D 9

Q.61 If the dollar amount of sales at Store P was $800,000 for 2006, what was the dollar amount of sales at that store for 2008 ?1. If the dollar amount of sales at Store P was $800,000 for 2006, what was the dollar amount of sales at that store for 2008 ?

A $727,200

B $792,000

C $800,000

D $880,000

Q.62 At Store T, the dollar amount of sales for 2007 was what percent of the dollar amount of sales for 2008 ?

A. 107.5% (or equivalent).

B. 100.5% (or equivalent).

C. 99.5 % (or equivalent).

D. 108.7% (or equivalent).

Q.63 Based on the information given, which of the following statements must be true?

A For 2008 the dollar amount of sales at Store R was greater than that at each of the other four stores.

B The dollar amount of sales at Store S for 2008 was 22 percent less than that for 2006.

C The dollar amount of sales at Store R for 2008 was more than 17 percent greater than that for 2006.

Q.64 Which of the following is the major product of the reaction shown above?

Q.65 According to IUPAC rules, what is the name of the molecule shown above?

(A) Benzyl propanoate

(B) Phenyl propanoate

(D) Propyl benzoate

Q.66 Of the following ions, which has the smallest radius?

(A) K+

(B) Ca2+

(D) Rb+

Q.67 The molecular geometry of thionyl chloride, SOCl2 , is best described as

(A) trigonal planar

(B) T-shaped

(D) trigonal pyramidal

Q.68 Which of the following is true of the cell represented above?

(A) Metal M is being oxidized.

(B) Metal N is the reducing agent.

(D) M2+ ions are being reduced.

Q.69 Of the following substances, which is likely to have the largest value of the coefficient a in the van der Waals equation of state for real gases shown above?

(A) H2

(B) N2

(D) NH3

Q.70 What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?

(A) 3

(B) 2

(D) 0

Q.71 Which of the following is the major organic product of the reaction shown above?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH(OH)2

B. CH3CH2CH2CHO

C. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

D. CH3CH2CH2CH3

Q.72 All of the following are aromatic EXCEPT

Q.73 For the reaction A + B ® C + D carried out at constant temperature, the initial rates of reaction given above were found experimentally. The rate law of this reaction, expressed as a function of reactant concentrations, is

(A) rate = k ([A] + [B])

(B) rate = k [A][B]

(D) rate = k [A][B]2

Q.74 Which of the following must be true about a binary liquid mixture that obeys Raoult’s law?

The partial pressure of each component at equilibrium is proportional to its mole fraction in the liquid
The volume of the mixture is equal to the sum of the volumes of each component before
Intermolecular interactions in the mixture are identical to intermolecular interactions in the pure

(A) I only

(B) III only

(D) I, II, and III

Q.75 In the reaction shown above, Cl^-(aq) behaves as

(A) an acid

(B) a base

(D) a reducing agent

Q.76 Elements with partially filled 4f or 5f orbitals include all of the following EXCEPT

(A) Cu

(B) Gd

(D) Am

Q.77 Which of the following gives the multiplicities of the signals for the protons designated HA and HB in the 1H NMR spectrum of the compound shown above?

A. Singlet Singlet

B. Triplet Doublet

C. Septet Singlet

D. Quartet Singlet

Q.78 In the compound shown above, which hydrogen is most easily abstracted in a free radical bromination reaction?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Q.79 Which of the following is the major product of the reaction shown above?

Q.79

Q.80 Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

(A) The process is exothermic.

(B) The process does not involve any work.

(D) The total entropy of the system plus surroundings increases.

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