• +91-9907252100
  • [email protected]
Kalinga Plus Kalinga Plus
IELTS Learning Platform
Blog
  • Home
  • Up to XII Students
    • Decide Stream For XI & XII
    • Career Options
    • Entrance Preparation
    • Sample Papers
    • Entrance Exams after 12th
    • International Entrance Exams To Study Abroad
    • Foreign University Comparison
    • Apply to Foreign Universities
    • General Preparation For Students Going To Study Abroad
    • Write A Report
    • Write an Article
    • Write An Essay
    • Important Dates
  • UG & PG
    • Job Profiles (Science)
      • Job Profiles (Science)
      • Job Profiles (Arts & Humanities)
      • Job Profiles (Commerce)
      • Entrepreneurship
      • Case Studies
      • Govt. Job Notifications
      • List of Job Portals
      • Important Dates
      • Entrance Exams After Graduation
    • Individuality and Team Work
      • Be Market Ready
      • Individuality and Team Work
      • Write a Synopsis
      • Write a Thesis
      • Prepare An Effective Resume
      • Prepare For An Interview
      • Dress Up for an Interview
      • List of Statutory Bodies
  • Tech Tips
    • Menu Item
      • Smartphone
      • Useful Apps
      • Brain Teaser Apps
      • Social Media
      • Online Games & Puzzle Activities
      • Pinterest Tips & Tricks
      • Tumblr Tips & Tricks
      • Twitter Tips & Tricks
    • Menu Item
      • Facebook Tips & Tricks
      • Instagram Tips & Tricks
      • LinkedIn Tips & Tricks
      • Snapchat Tips & Tricks
      • Reddit Tips & Tips
      • Meetup Tips & Tricks
      • OTT Platform
      • Tech Tips Videos
  • Mock Test
    • JEE
    • NEET
    • UG-CLAT
    • UGC-NET
    • LSAT
    • CAT
    • IELTS
    • TOEFL
    • GATE
    • GRE
    • MAT
    • NDA
    • SAT
    • General Aptitude Question Bank
    • English Communication Question Bank
    • Quantative Aptitude Question Bank
    • Logical Reasoning Question Bank
  • GROOMING
    • Personality Development
    • Personal Grooming
    • Be Successful
    • Improve Your Vocabulary
    • Improve English
    • Benefits of Acting skills
    • Benefits Of Music Skills
    • Benefits Of Art Skills
    • Benefits of Sports Skills
    • Effective Presentation
    • Email Etiquette
    • Manners And Etiquette
  • HOBBIES
    • Traveling
    • Adventure
    • Reading
    • Arts And Craft
    • Swimming
    • Cycling
    • Coding
    • Dancing
    • Baking
    • Gardening
    • Drawing
    • Public Speaking
  • K PLUS
    • Young Achievers
    • Be Assertive
    • Behavior
    • Career in Researh
    • Scholarships For Indian Students
    • Cope with Failure
    • Stay Motivated & Keep Moving Ahead
    • Sportsmanship
    • Debate Writing
    • Public Speaking
  • Working Professional
    • Basic Departments & Functions in a Business Corporate
    • Be Humble
    • Handle Competition At The Workplace
    • Handle Workplace Politics
    • Demonstrate Integrity
    • Start-up
    • Search for Your Dream Job
    • Follow Your Passion
    • Impress Others
  • OTHERS
    • Leisure Activities
    • Board Games
    • Fun Facts and Trivia
    • Quotes & Messages
    • Inspirational Stories
    • Fun and Interesting Facts About India
    • Historic Places In India
    • Historic Places In World
    • Jargons
    • Stress Busters
    • Top Schools in India
    • Education Abbreviations
    • Academic Vocabulary
    • Creative Corner
    • K Plus Sponsorship
MAT-2
Home Quiz Quizzes & Surveys MAT-2

MAT-2

Thanks For Submitting Your Details. You Can Start Your Test Now!!

Name
Mobile No.
Email Id
City
State
Country
Course
Q1. Who is the slowest among the three workers P, Q and R?

Statements:
I. P and Q together fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 11 hours.
II. P, Q and R together can fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 5 hours.

Choose the correct Option:

Q2. The aggregate marks of three students X, Y and Z was 2025. What were the marks of each of the students?

Statements:
I. Y and Z together secured 1324 marks.
II. X and Z together secured 1355 marks.
Choose the correct option:

Q3. What is the ratio of the number of female voters to the number of male voters in a booth?

Statements:
I. The number of voters is 993 and the number of female voters is 368 in the booth.
II. The number of female voters is more than 1/4th of total voters in the booth.
Choose the correct option:

Q4. Does the speed of the train exceed 80 km/hr?

Statements:
I. The train crosses a pole in 8 sec.
II. The train takes 12 sec to cross a 150 m long bridge.
Choose the correct option:

Q5. What is the angle between 2 hands of a watch?

Statements:
I. 20 min earlier the angle was 150.
II. The min hand will reach 6 in around 10 min.
Choose the correct option:

Q6. The percentage of production of Company R to production of Company Q is the maximum in the year

Q7. The ratio of the average production of Company P during the years 2005 to 2007 to the average production of Company Q for the same period is

Q8. The percentage increase in production of Company Q from the year 2003 to the year 2007 is

Q9. The average production over the years 2003 – 2007 was maximum for the Company(ies)

Q10. The percentage rise or fall in production of Company Q as compared to the previous year is the maximum in the year

Q11. What is the sum of profits made by Companies A & B?

Study the table below to answer the following question.

Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings.

Q12. What is the sum of the borrowings of all five companies?

Study the table below to answer the following question.

Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings.

Q13. By how much do the borrowings of Company B exceed that of Company A?

Study the table below to answer the following question.

Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings.

Q14. By how much does the dividend paid by Company D exceed that of Company A?

Study the table below to answer the following question.

Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings.

Q15. How many students of institutes P and W are studying at graduate level?

Q16. Total number of students studying at post-graduate level from institutes T and V is

Q17. What is the total number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels in institute S?

Q18. What is the nearest ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels in institute R?

Q19. What is the nearest ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate level in institute V and graduate level in institute T?

Q20. Between 2004 and 2005, the increase in yield per tonne km in April as a ratio to the increase in yield per tonne km in July is closest to which of the following?

Q21. Air India’s average profit from 2001 – 02 to 2004 – 05 was

Q22. Air India’s yield per tonne km from April to May 2004 increased by

Q23. The average increase in the passenger load factor over the four years was

Q24. The overall average speed of the entire trip excluding stoppage time is nearly

Q25. What percentage of time of the entire trip was actually spend traveling between the cities?

Q26. The total stoppage time at the cities in the first half and second half of the total distance is in the ratio

Q27. Between how many pairs of consecutive stations does the speed run below the overall average speed of the entire trip (Time is calculated from arrival to arrival)?

Q28. If the train stops at the each of the cities for 56% more time than what is at present, then at what time will it arrive at city H if after departing from city A as per schedule?

Q29. How many more people from city S would have made the ratio 11:9 between the number of people contributing from cities S and T respectively?

Q30. Number of people contributing from Q and U together form what percent of the total number of people contributing from all the given cities?

Q31. Number of people contributing from how many cities form less than 18% of the total number of people contributing from all the cities together?

Q32. Approximately by what percent number of people contributing from city T are more in comparison to the people contributing from city S?

Q33. What is the respective ratio between numbers of people contributing from City P to those from city R?

Q34. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A

Column B

The average speed needed to drive 350 km

in 5 hrs.

 

The average speed needed to drive 780 km in

12 hrs.

 

Q35. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Q36. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A                      Column B

3x – (4 + x)                        2x – 4

Q37. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A                                                               Column B
Twice the sum of 14 and b, divided by 2                  b + 14

Q38. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A                                                                     Column B
The area of a square whose sides                                 The area of a rectangle with
have a length of 3x                                                           length 2x and width x


Q39. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A

Column B

The surface area of a cube with an edge 4 inch long

The surface area of a regular pyramid with a length of 5 inch

Q40. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities.

Column A

Column B

The volume of a cylinder if the radius is doubled

The volume of a cylinder if the height is doubled

Q41. Which international tennis player failed a dope test at the Australian Open 2016 for a drug Meldonium which became a banned substance under the WADA code this year?

Q42. Which team has won the 70th edition of Santosh Trophy Football Championships title 2016?

Q43. Tourism campaign titled 'New Worlds' of which state has won the prestigious 'Golden City Gate Award' at the Internationale TourismusbCrse Berlin (ITB-Berlin) 2016?

Q44. Which of the following is the oldest Central Para Military force in India?

Q45. Who among the following has been elected as the first civilian president of Myanmar in 53 years in March 2016?

Q46. In which one of the following cities, the Iron Fist 2016 exercise (air power demonstration) was conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) in March 2016?

Q47. What was the name of the Internet pioneer and e-mail inventor, who has passed away in Washington, USA at the age of 74 years?

Q48. Which one of the following teams won the third season of Star Sports Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) in March 2016?

Q49. Which one of the following nationalized banks from India was granted operating licence by Myanmar Government along with three other Asian banks?

Q50. Which state/UT is first in the country to launch the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine in March 2016 as a public health programme for school children?

Q51. Which retail company has tied up with Tata's Trent to retail its FMCG products through the later's Star Bazar outlets?

Q52. Which country has second referendum in March 2016 on whether to change their national flag from a design which features the British Union Jack to one which features a native silver fern?

Q53. Who among the following shooter clinched the gold in 50 m pistol event at the ISSF World Cup in Bangkok in March 2016?

Q54. Which one of the following IT companies has launched the ‘ENVY13' a computer notebook?

Q55. According to the Chinese Zodiac, 2016 is the year of the ________, which has started from 08 February 2016.

Q56. Which among the following group of nations has successfully launched 'ExoMars 2016’, an unmanned spacecraft to search for biosignatures on Mars?

Q57. Railways has announced in the railway budget 2016-17, the launch of a new train named________, having fully air-conditioned third AC services with an optional services for meals for reserved passengers.

Q58. Who among the following has been selected for the Padma Vibhushan 2016 in the field of Medicine-Oncology?

Q59. The Govt. of India has approved in-principle for setting up Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO) in India with LIGO Laboratory from

Q60. 'Setu Bharatam’ launched in March 2016, is an ambitious programme of Govt. of India with an investment of __________ to build bridges for safe and seamless travel on National Highways.

Q61. Who has been elected as the new President of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) in 2016?

Q62. Mathematician Andrew J Wiles who won the prestigious 2016 Abel Prize given by the Norwegian Academy of Sciences and Letters belongs to

Q63. Capital Local Area Bank (CLAB) Limited which became the first financial entity in India to get Small Financial Bank Licence by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is from

Q64. Which is the indigenously developed instrument deployed by the India Meteorology Department (IMD) which provides real time visibility information to pilots?

Q65. Where did the four day biennial event, Defexpo India 2016, India's biggest ever land, naval and homeland security exhibition take place in March 2016?

Q66. Who among the following chess players won the 2016 FIDE World Chess Candidates Tournament in March 2016?

Q67. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched India's first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named 'Rotavac' to combat infant mortality due to

Q68. India Post has released for the first time a customized 'My Stamp’ on in recognition of the company's 75 years of services to the nation.

Q69. The US President Barack Obama has made a historic visit to" which one of the following North-American countries after a gap of 88 years by any US President?

Q70. As per the GOI latest report, the UIDAI has generated the 100th crore Aadhaar on April 4, 2016, out of this ___________ people are above the age of 18 who have got Aadhaar.

Q71. Which among the following university is ranked first as per the 'India Rankings 2016', India's first ever ranking of Indian institutions released by GOI?

Q72. The Prime Minister of India has gifted to King of Saudi Arabia, a gold-plated replica of the Cheraman Juma Masjid located in______, during to his visit to our country.

Q73. Which private equity player has acquired Bengaluru-based IT services company Mphasis in one of the largest deal in India for Rs. 7100 crore?

Q74. How much refunds (approx.) worth of rupees has been issued by the Income Tax department of India in the year 2015-16?

Q75. In which place, the Rs. 345 crore refinery of Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) was dedicated in the recent past to the nation which helped IOC to become country's top refiner?

Q76. According to the food and agriculture organisation of the UN, India currently accounts for nearly_________ of worlds' total milk production.

Q77. Which telecom sector company has a Rs. 3500 crore spectrum deal with Aircel to get Ail-India 4G frequency in eight circles in India?

Q78. President of which one of the following SAARC countries has visited India in April 2016 to sign an action plan on Defence Corporation with India?

Q79. Filmmaker Sharmeen Obaid-Chinoy who won the Oscar in 2016 for her documentary film to the life of an honor killing survivor is from

Q80. Harinder Sindhu of Indian region is the new High Commissioner-designate of ________in India.

Q81. A hater of learning and knowledge

Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question.

Q82. A disease that spreads by means of germs carried in atmosphere

Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question.

Q83. A large-scale departure of people from a territory

Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question.

Q84. A speech made by someone for the first time

Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question.

Q85. Because of its tendency to __________ , most Indian art is ___________ Japanese art, where symbols have been minimized and meaning has been conveyed by using the method of the merest suggestion.

In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Q86. In the absence of native predators to stop the spread of their population, the imported goats ________ to such an inordinate degree that they over-grazed the countryside ________ and the native vegetation.

In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Q87. Carried away by the ______ effects of the experimental medication, the patient _______ his desire to continue as a subject for as long as he could.

In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Q88. Just as a highway automobile accident leaves lasting marks of spilled coolant, ______ and oil, the smashing together of gigantic land masses releases and redirects fluids that flow, heat, _______ and deposit, leaving an enduring record of their presence.

In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Q89. We want the trainer to be him who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills.

the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.

Q90. The government’s failing to keep its pledges will have the effect of earning distrust from all the other nations in the region.

In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.

Q91. Liberalization has gone hand-in-hand and has offered incentives for such things as personal initiative, ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness.

In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.

Q92. To be sure, there would be scarcely no time left over for other things if school children would have been expected to have considered all sides of every matter on which they had opinions.

In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.

Q93. The most appropriate title for this passage is

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, a
process or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, at
minimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequate
understanding of risk can destroy businesses.
The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indian
firms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature of
growth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment of
risk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,
market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wages
rocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves as
world-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.
Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, process
and service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can we
make that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products and
services that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requires
understanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understanding
factors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive the
competencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.
This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses to
manage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In a
commoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendly
product. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not to
mention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all the
leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, in
contrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.
Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, has
may dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, in
difficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize an
opportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sour
deals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.
Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.
The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. And
corporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment maker
produces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequences
of this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational risk
increases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of them
could do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seek
opportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.

Q94. “Risk needs to be understood in its totality.” Which of the following relevant risk factor/s is/are discussed by the author in this passage?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it

Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, a
process or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, at
minimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequate
understanding of risk can destroy businesses.
The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indian
firms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature of
growth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment of
risk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,
market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wages
rocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves as
world-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.
Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, process
and service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can we
make that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products and
services that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requires
understanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understanding
factors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive the
competencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.
This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses to
manage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In a
commoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendly
product. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not to
mention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all the
leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, in
contrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.
Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, has
may dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, in
difficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize an
opportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sour
deals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.
Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.
The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. And
corporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment maker
produces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequences
of this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational risk
increases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of them
could do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seek
opportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.

I. Strategic Risk             II. Operational Risk                III. Recession

Q95. The best example of leveraging a business opportunity, as implied in the passage, is

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, a
process or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, at
minimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequate
understanding of risk can destroy businesses.
The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indian
firms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature of
growth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment of
risk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,
market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wages
rocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves as
world-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.
Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, process
and service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can we
make that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products and
services that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requires
understanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understanding
factors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive the
competencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.
This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses to
manage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In a
commoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendly
product. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not to
mention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all the
leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, in
contrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.
Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, has
may dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, in
difficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize an
opportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sour
deals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.
Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.
The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. And
corporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment maker
produces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequences
of this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational risk
increases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of them
could do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seek
opportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.

Q96. “In contrast, all the leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone.” What does this sentence imply?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, a
process or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, at
minimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequate
understanding of risk can destroy businesses.
The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indian
firms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature of
growth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment of
risk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,
market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wages
rocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves as
world-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.
Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, process
and service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can we
make that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products and
services that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requires
understanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understanding
factors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive the
competencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.
This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses to
manage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In a
commoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendly
product. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not to
mention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all the
leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, in
contrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.
Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, has
may dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, in
difficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize an
opportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sour
deals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.
Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.
The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. And
corporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment maker
produces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequences
of this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational risk
increases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of them
could do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seek
opportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.

Q97. Which of the following is not true in the context of this passage?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, a
process or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, at
minimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequate
understanding of risk can destroy businesses.
The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indian
firms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature of
growth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment of
risk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,
market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wages
rocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves as
world-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.
Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, process
and service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can we
make that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products and
services that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requires
understanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understanding
factors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive the
competencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.
This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses to
manage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In a
commoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendly
product. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not to
mention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all the
leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, in
contrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.
Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, has
may dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, in
difficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize an
opportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sour
deals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.
Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.
The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. And
corporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment maker
produces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequences
of this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational risk
increases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of them
could do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seek
opportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.

Q98. Keeping in mind the ______ to develop the sector the government has ____ solicited foreign investment.

The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole

Q99. G-20 group of nations

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

PASSAGE II
The G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’s
economic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met have
returned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economic
growth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient Atharva
Veda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”
The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for two
decades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and other
European cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion and
disillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with a
tranquil mind.
In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing world
economy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, it
seems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize the
current one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in the
current situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, like
Asia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarily
from the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What was
peddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,
spoiled brats and marital strife.
The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are also
unable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to be
shredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result the
economy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is a
fairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together and
attach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the man
who has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man could
somehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.
In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap and
being slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve the
problem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fat
cats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Union
countries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effort
to encourage them to leave.
After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,
where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaks
and Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germany
and Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Once
the global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewhere
in Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds of
tricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that is
rotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at the
service of people, and not the other way round.

I. Accounts for 66% of the world’s population
II. Comprises the world’s most powerful economies
III. Accounts for 80% of the world trade

Q100. In the context of this passage, the phrase “Joe, the plumber” refers to

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

PASSAGE II
The G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’s
economic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met have
returned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economic
growth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient Atharva
Veda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”
The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for two
decades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and other
European cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion and
disillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with a
tranquil mind.
In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing world
economy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, it
seems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize the
current one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in the
current situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, like
Asia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarily
from the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What was
peddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,
spoiled brats and marital strife.
The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are also
unable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to be
shredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result the
economy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is a
fairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together and
attach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the man
who has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man could
somehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.
In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap and
being slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve the
problem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fat
cats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Union
countries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effort
to encourage them to leave.
After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,
where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaks
and Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germany
and Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Once
the global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewhere
in Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds of
tricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that is
rotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at the
service of people, and not the other way round.

Q101. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
PASSAGE II
The G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’s
economic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met have
returned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economic
growth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient Atharva
Veda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”
The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for two
decades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and other
European cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion and
disillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with a
tranquil mind.
In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing world
economy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, it
seems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize the
current one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in the
current situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, like
Asia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarily
from the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What was
peddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,
spoiled brats and marital strife.
The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are also
unable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to be
shredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result the
economy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is a
fairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together and
attach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the man
who has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man could
somehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.
In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap and
being slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve the
problem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fat
cats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Union
countries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effort
to encourage them to leave.
After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,
where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaks
and Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germany
and Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Once
the global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewhere
in Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds of
tricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that is
rotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at the
service of people, and not the other way round.
I. G-20 leaders got drunk at the Summit.
II. The G-20 leaders were in high spirits assuming they have found the solution for the current economic crisis.
III. The European crowds outside the G-20 Summit venue marched through the streets of Berlin, etc., in celebrations.

Q102. Almost all the world leaders at the recent G-20 Summit

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

PASSAGE II
The G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’s
economic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met have
returned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economic
growth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient Atharva
Veda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”
The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for two
decades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and other
European cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion and
disillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with a
tranquil mind.
In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing world
economy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, it
seems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize the
current one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in the
current situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, like
Asia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarily
from the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What was
peddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,
spoiled brats and marital strife.
The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are also
unable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to be
shredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result the
economy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is a
fairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together and
attach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the man
who has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man could
somehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.
In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap and
being slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve the
problem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fat
cats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Union
countries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effort
to encourage them to leave.
After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,
where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaks
and Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germany
and Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Once
the global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewhere
in Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds of
tricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that is
rotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at the
service of people, and not the other way round.
I. need to settle down and analyse the events at the summit with a composed mind.
II. took the easy way out of finding a solution to the economic crisis, by deciding to pump in huge funds into the economy.
III. couldn’t even perceive the real questions to be answered.

Q103. What is the most appropriate title for the passage?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

PASSAGE III
Over 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy would
become vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair
elections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the
15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another to
win votes.
Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminal
charges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)
Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty of
offence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon to
protect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person is
presumed innocent unless found guilty.
However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right to
contest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on the
basis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which an
accused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfy
himself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed to
the Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing of
charges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of the
offence. He would then be discharged.
Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, be
incorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contesting
elections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Act
will have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section
8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would stand
disqualified.
However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualification
should apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get a
discharge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the Supreme
Court in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time of
filing of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years or
otherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospective
candidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess an
clean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that no
candidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.
The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a conviction
even for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. In
another case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer an
appeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. This
would mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial court
are unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal would
operate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,
obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, the
Supreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and a
candidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to be
sound.

Q104. Which of the following is not true as explained in the passage?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

PASSAGE III
Over 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy would
become vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair
elections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the
15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another to
win votes.
Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminal
charges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)
Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty of
offence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon to
protect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person is
presumed innocent unless found guilty.
However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right to
contest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on the
basis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which an
accused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfy
himself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed to
the Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing of
charges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of the
offence. He would then be discharged.
Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, be
incorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contesting
elections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Act
will have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section
8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would stand
disqualified.
However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualification
should apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get a
discharge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the Supreme
Court in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time of
filing of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years or
otherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospective
candidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess an
clean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that no
candidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.
The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a conviction
even for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. In
another case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer an
appeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. This
would mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial court
are unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal would
operate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,
obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, the
Supreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and a
candidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to be
sound.

Q105. The RP Act requires a conviction of how many years minimum, to disqualify a candidate from contesting?

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
PASSAGE III
Over 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy would
become vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair
elections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the
15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another to
win votes.
Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminal
charges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)
Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty of
offence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon to
protect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person is
presumed innocent unless found guilty.
However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right to
contest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on the
basis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which an
accused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfy
himself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed to
the Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing of
charges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of the
offence. He would then be discharged.
Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, be
incorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contesting
elections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Act
will have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section
8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would stand
disqualified.
However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualification
should apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get a
discharge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the Supreme
Court in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time of
filing of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years or
otherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospective
candidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess an
clean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that no
candidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.
The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a conviction
even for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. In
another case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer an
appeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. This
would mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial court
are unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal would
operate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,
obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, the
Supreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and a
candidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to be
sound.

Q106. In this passage the author suggests that it would be in the fitness of things if

Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
PASSAGE III
Over 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy would
become vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair
elections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the
15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another to
win votes.
Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminal
charges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)
Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty of
offence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon to
protect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person is
presumed innocent unless found guilty.
However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right to
contest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on the
basis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which an
accused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfy
himself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed to
the Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing of
charges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of the
offence. He would then be discharged.
Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, be
incorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contesting
elections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Act
will have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section
8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would stand
disqualified.
However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualification
should apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get a
discharge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the Supreme
Court in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time of
filing of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years or
otherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospective
candidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess an
clean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that no
candidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.
The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a conviction
even for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. In
another case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer an
appeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. This
would mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial court
are unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal would
operate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,
obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, the
Supreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and a
candidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to be
sound.

Q107. Which of the following is true?

Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
PASSAGE III
Over 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy would
become vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair
elections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the
15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another to
win votes.
Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminal
charges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)
Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty of
offence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon to
protect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person is
presumed innocent unless found guilty.
However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right to
contest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on the
basis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which an
accused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfy
himself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed to
the Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing of
charges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of the
offence. He would then be discharged.
Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, be
incorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contesting
elections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Act
will have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section
8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would stand
disqualified.
However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualification
should apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get a
discharge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the Supreme
Court in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time of
filing of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years or
otherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospective
candidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess an
clean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that no
candidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.
The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a conviction
even for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. In
another case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer an
appeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. This
would mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial court
are unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal would
operate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,
obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, the
Supreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and a
candidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to be
sound.

Q108. Which of the above statements is/are true?

Answer the question that follows.
Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropical
plains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequate
drainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants of
high yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts is
less as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from proven
mother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.
The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing and
land leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. A
spacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up with
adequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About
250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Drip
irrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities of
water and energy.
In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.
Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.
Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained to
grow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should be
done when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuring
should be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, and
watered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrient
deficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.
Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and other
botanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application after
monitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improve
the fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though the
fruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurtured
grown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.
With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid lime
garden.
It can be inferred from the passage that
I. the quality and size of fruits depend upon the longevity of the plants.
II. the yield of grafts is less as compared to the trees developed from the seeds.
III. there is not much of a difference between grafts and the trees developed from the seeds, except in life.

Q109. For a good growth of acid-lime crop, all of the following are essential except

Answer the question that follows.
Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropical
plains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequate
drainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants of
high yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts is
less as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from proven
mother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.
The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing and
land leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. A
spacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up with
adequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About
250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Drip
irrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities of
water and energy.
In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.
Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.
Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained to
grow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should be
done when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuring
should be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, and
watered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrient
deficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.
Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and other
botanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application after
monitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improve
the fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though the
fruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurtured
grown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.
With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid lime
garden.

Q110. The author of the passage could be

Answer the question that follows.
Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropical
plains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequate
drainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants of
high yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts is
less as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from proven
mother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.
The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing and
land leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. A
spacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up with
adequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About
250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Drip
irrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities of
water and energy.
In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.
Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.
Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained to
grow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should be
done when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuring
should be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, and
watered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrient
deficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.
Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and other
botanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application after
monitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improve
the fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though the
fruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurtured
grown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.
With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid lime
garden.

Q111. According to the passage, the acid lime

Answer the question that follows.
Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropical
plains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequate
drainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants of
high yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts is
less as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from proven
mother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.
The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing and
land leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. A
spacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up with
adequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About
250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Drip
irrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities of
water and energy.
In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.
Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.
Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained to
grow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should be
done when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuring
should be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, and
watered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrient
deficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.
Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and other
botanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application after
monitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improve
the fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though the
fruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurtured
grown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.
With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid lime
garden.

Q112. All of the following insecticides can be sprayed on acid-lime crop EXCEPT

Answer the question that follows.
Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropical
plains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequate
drainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants of
high yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts is
less as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from proven
mother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.
The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing and
land leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. A
spacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up with
adequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About
250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Drip
irrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities of
water and energy.
In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.
Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.
Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained to
grow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should be
done when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuring
should be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, and
watered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrient
deficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.
Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and other
botanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application after
monitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improve
the fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though the
fruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurtured
grown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.
With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid lime
garden.

Q113. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

A. The use of sovereign power poses difficult choices because whether it has been used sensibly or not can be determined
only after the event.
B. Faced with having to stimulate the economy in the sharpest and worst downturn since 1929, governments have responded
by cutting taxes and spending more.
C. That has forced governments to borrow more but, when gorillas walk on Main Street, others have to make way.
D. The idea of monetizing the fiscal deficit, which is gathering steam rather too quickly because the US has also decided to do
so, is a good example of this.
E. The former has, however, made the latter harder because how do you spend more when you are earning less?

Q114. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

A. It is that time of the year when the election finds its way back to being the central topic of discussion.
B. Unlike India, in other democracies, ranging from the US to Zimbabwe, if no candidate secures 51 per cent of the votes, the
top two would be up for a re-run; no doubt that this comes with additional costs and time.
C. To elaborate, say there are three contestants in a constituency and each of them gets 40, 35 and 25 per cent of polled votes
respectively.
D. Leaving aside the usual rhetoric, let us take up a relatively less discussed, nevertheless important, question : If more than 60
per cent of the elected representatives in Parliament have less than 51 per cent of the polled votes, is our democracy really
effective?
E. Are we optimizing taxpayers’ money at the cost of democracy?

Q115. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

A. Last March, I was invited to present a paper on the topic of whether the mistakes of the 20th century would be repeated in
the 21st century as well.
B. The economic crisis hadn’t become grave then.
C. But today the world is in the midst of the biggest economic crisis since 1929.
D. The key difference between then and now is that the old power structures have finally disappeared.
E. Now even the US is pleading for financial help from China.

Q116. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

A. Jawaharlal Nehru, despite his heavy schedule both as a Prime Minister and as a freedom hero constantly in demand, made
it a point to reply to letters under his personal signature within a couple of days of receiving them.
B. That was the time when, following the Chinese invasion of India in October 1962, the load on Nehru was near-unbearable
and he was also in declining health.
C. Even so, he replied to Ramanujam on the very day (April 9) the letter reached him, setting out in detail his approach.
D. What a contrast are the following examples of political decency of bygone days with conditions obtaining today !
E. On April 8, 1963 K.S. Ramanujam, a highly regarded journalist of Madras, wrote to him about the corrupt practices of Ministers,
especially in the matter of collection of funds for elections.

Q117. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the above argument?

The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.

Consumers are not so easily manipulated as they are often painted. They may know what they want, and what they want may be greatly
different from what other people believe they need.

Q118. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the above argument?

The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.

Unfortunately, only 11 percent of the driving public uses regular seat belts. Automatic restraints are the answers, and the quicker they are
required, the sooner highways deaths will be reduced.

Q119. Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most?

The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.
Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security of senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer
Medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional
shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a state faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So it is
advisable that the working population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.

Q120. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.
Organizations are often defined as groups of people who come together to pursue a common goal. But more often than not, goals
diverge as much as they converge, making the rationality of the overall organization no more than an elusive ideal. Beneath the
collective irrationality, however, organizations are often operating in a way that is eminently rational from the standpoint of the
individuals, groups and coalitions directly involved.

Q121. Krishan has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal heads are 59 and the total number of feet are 190, how many cows does Krishan have?

Mark the best option

Q122. Vanita bought a watch with 24% discount on the selling price. If the watch cost her Rs. 779/-, what was the original selling price of the watch?

Mark the best option

Q123. The cost of 13 kg of sugar is Rs. 195/-. The cost of 17 kg. of rice is Rs. 544/- and the cost of 21 kg. of wheat is Rs. 336/-. What is the total cost of 21 kg of sugar, 26 kg of rice and 19 kg of wheat?

Mark the best option

Q124. The difference between 38% of a number and 24% of the same number is 135.10. What is 40% of that number?

Mark the best option.

Q125. Asmita invests an amount of Rs. 9,535/- at 4 % p.a. to obtain a total amount of Rs. 11,442/- on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to obtain the total sum?

Mark the best option

Q126. The sum of money is to be divided amongst A, B and C in the respective ratio of 3:4:5 and another sum of money is to be divided between E and F equally. If F got Rs. 1,050/- less than A, how much amount did B receive?

Mark the best option

Q127. In an examination it is required to get 296 of the total maximum aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 259 marks and is declared failed. The difference of marks obtained by the student and that required to pass is 5%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

Mark the best option

Q128. The price of sugar is increased by 25%.Find by how much percent the consumption of sugar be decreased so as not to increase the expenditure?

Mark the best option

Q129. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 41. What is the product of A & E?

Mark the best option

Q130. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 2 : 1 respectively. What is the daughter’s age?

Mark the best option

Q131. A car travels a distance of 45 km at the speed of 15 km/hr. It covers the next 50 km of its journey at the speed of 25km/hr and the last 25 km of its journey at the speed of 15 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

Mark the best option

Q132. A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 18 less, he would have gained 25%. The cost price of the book is

Mark the best option

Q133. A car travels a distance of 170 km in 2 hours partly at a speed of 100 km/h and partly at 50 km/h. The distance travelled at a speed of 50 km/h is

Q134. A train is scheduled to cover the distance between two stations 46 km apart in one hour. If it travels 25 km at a speed of 40 km/h, find the speed for the remaining journey to complete it in the scheduled time.

Q135. In a 400 metres race, A gives B a start of 5 seconds and beats him by 15 metres. In another race of 400 metres, A beats B by 7 1/7 seconds. Their speeds are

Q136. A cube of side 4 units is painted red on two opposite faces, black on two opposite faces, and green and black on the two remaining faces. If it is cut into 64 equal cubes, then how many cubes will have exactly one black coloured face and remaining 5 unpainted faces?

Q137. A toy cube is painted orange on all sides. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller cubes are not painted at all?

Q138. What should be subtracted from 15, 28, 20 and 38 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?

Q139. The incomes of Gupta and Verma are in the ratio 9 : 4 and their expenditures are in the ratio 7 : 3. If each saves Rs.2000, then Gupta’s expenditure is

Q140. There are 6 multiple choice questions in an examination. How many sequences of answers are possible, if the first three questions have 4 choices each and the next three have 5 each?

Q141. A number lock on a suitcase has 3 wheels, each labelled with 10 digits from 0 to 9. If opening of the lock is a particular sequence of three digits with no repeats, how many such sequences will be possible?

Q142. Eight students are participating in a race. In how many ways can the first three prizes be won?

Q143. A rectangular farm has to be fenced on one long side, one short side and the diagonal. If the cost of fencing is Rs. 100 per m, the area of the farm is 1200 m2 and the short side is 30 m long, how much would the job cost?

Q144. Length of a rectangular blackboard is 8 m more than that of its breadth. If its length is increased by 7 m and its breadth is decreased by 4 m, its area remains unchanged. The length and breadth of the rectangular blackboard is

Q145. One test tube contains some acid and another test tube contains an equal quantity of water. To prepare a solution, 20 grams of the acid is poured into the second test tube. Then, two-thirds of the so-formed solution is poured from the second tube into the first. If the fluid in the first test tube is four times that in the second, what quantity of water was taken initially?

Q146. The average age of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of the father and the eldest child. The total age of the mother and the youngest child is 39 years. If the father’s age is 26 years, what is the age of the second child?

Q147. A man buys a house for Rs. 5 lakhs and rents it. He puts 12 .5 % of each month's rent aside for repairs, pays Rs. 1660 as annual taxes and realizes 10% on his investments thereafter. The monthly rent of the house is

Q148. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5% and the remainder at a loss of 2%. If the total profit was Rs. 400, the value of the consignment was

Q149. Two shopkeepers announce the same price of Rs. 700 for a shirt. The first offers successive discounts of 30% and 6% while the second offers successive discounts of 20% and 16%. The shopkeeper that offers better discount, charges less than the other shopkeeper.

Q150. Even after reducing the marked price of a transistor by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. If the cost price be Rs. 320, what percentage of profit would he have made if he had sold the transistor at the marked price?

Q151. A train started from station ‘A’ and proceeded towards station ‘B’ at a speed of 48 km/hr. Forty-five minutes later another train started from station ‘B’ and proceeded towards station ‘A’ at 50 km/hr. If the distance between the two stations is 232 km, at what distance from station ‘A’ will the trains meet?

Q152. A cylindrical tub of radius 12 cm contains water up to a depth of 20 cm. A spherical iron ball is dropped into the tub and thus the level of water is raised by 6.75 cm. The radius of the ball is

Q153. A spherical ball of lead, 3 cm in diameter is melted and recast into three spherical balls. The diameter of two of these are 1.5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The diameter of the third ball is

Q154. A runs 1 2/3 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B might reach it at the same time?

Q155. There are two bags, one of which contains 3 black and 4 white balls, while the other contains 4 black and 3 white balls. A dice is cast; if the face 1 or 3 turns up, a ball is taken from the first bag and if any other face turns up a ball is chosen from the second bag. The probability of choosing a black ball is

Q156. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B hits 3 times in 4 shots, and C hits twice in 3 shots. They fire together. The probability that at least two shots hit the target is

Q157. A cistern, open at the top, is to be lined with sheet lead which weighs 27 kg/m2. The cistern is 4.5 m long and 3 m wide and holds 50 m3. The weight of lead required is

Q158. A hemispherical bowl is 176 cm round the brim. Supposing it to be half full, how many persons may be served from it in hemispherical glasses 4 cm in diameter at the top?

Q159. A balloon leaves the earth at point A and rises at a uniform velocity. At the end of 1 1/2 min an observer situated at a distance of 200 m from A finds the angular elevation of the balloon to be 60°. The speed of the balloon is

°

Q160. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45°. After ascending one kilometer towards the mountain upon an incline of 30°, the elevation changes to 60°. The height of the mountain is

Q161. A sum of Rs. 25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12 days and D in 24 days. How much did C receive if all the four work together?

Q162. A job can be done by 3 skilled workmen in 20 days or by 5 boys in 30 days. How many days will they take if all of them work together?

Q163. A cistern can be filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 min respectively. Both pipes are opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7/8 of full quantity water flows through the former and only 5/6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however, being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 min from that moment. How long was it before the full flow began?

Q164. Choose the correct option:

In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement:
Black cloud follows thunder; rains follow thunder.
Conclusions:
I. Thunder is the cause of rain
II. Black cloud is the cause of thunder.

Q165. Choose the correct option:

In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.
Statement:
Workers feel highly motivated when they get a sense of involvement by participating in the management of companies.
Conclusions:
I. Workers should be motivated to produce more.
II. Workers should be allowed to participate in the management of companies.

Q166. Choose the correct option:

In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.
Statement:
Power consumption in every family has doubled during the last five years.
Conclusions:
I. There is a lot of development in the society.
II. Power rates have become cheaper.

Q167. Choose the correct option:

In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.
Statement:
This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.
Conclusions:
I. Some people find this world quite good.
II. Some people find this world quite bad.

Q168. Choose the correct option:

The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement :
Incentives must be given to strengthen the motivation of employees.
Assumptions :
I. Incentives are expected to motivate employees.
II. Employees at present are not motivated.

Q169. Choose the correct option:

The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement :
Despite heavy rains traffic has not been disturbed.
Assumptions :
I. Rains do not affect traffic movement.
II. Adequate precautions were taken for traffic management during rainy season.

Q170. Choose the correct option:

The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement :
The government, through a notification, has banned smoking in public places.
Assumptions :
I. People should abide by the notification.
II. The message in the notification will reach the general public.

Q171. Choose the correct option:

The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement :
“Wanted a two bedroom-hall-kitchen flat in the college area” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :
I. Landlords generally respond to such advertisements.
II. Flats may be available in the college area.

Q172. Choose the correct option:

There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Should religion be taught in our schools?
Arguments:
I. Yes, do the parents not wish to develop their wards into mature individuals?
II. No, how can one dream of such a step when we want the young generation to fulfil its role.

Q173. Choose the correct option:

There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Should family planning be made compulsory in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, looking at the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.
II. No, in India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of some of the religions.

Q174. Choose the correct option:

There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Should judiciary be independent of the executive?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This would help curb the unlawful activities of the executive.
II. No. The executive would not be able to take bold measures.

Q175. Choose the correct option:

There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Should open book systems be introduced in examinations?
Arguments:
I. Yes, because it will avoid mass copying.
II. No, because then all students will get 100% marks.

Q176. Ajay is the brother of Vijay. Mili is the sister of Ajay. Sanjay is the brother of Rahul and Mehul is the daughter of Vijay. Who is Sanjay’s uncle?

Q177. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter, what is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?

Q178. Meera is daughter of Mahender. Mala, Achla’s sister has a son Mohan and daughter Sushila. Kamla is maternal aunt of Sushila and mother of Krishna. Mohan is cousin of Krishna. Krishna is sister of Meera. How is Achla related to Mahender?

Q179. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the immediate right of B and E is to the immediate left of C and right of A, and B is to the right of D. Which of the house is in the middle?

Q180. If the alphabet series is written in the manner AZBYCX …. and so on, what will be the fifth letter to the right of fifteenth letter from the left?

Q181. P, Q, R and S walk diagonally to opposite corners and from there Q and R walk one and a half sides anti-clockwise while P and S walk one side clockwise along the sides. Where is S now?

Q182. Q travelled straight to R, a distance of 10 km. He turned right and walked 7 km towards S. Again he turned right and walked 8 km, and then finally turned right and walked 7 km. How far is he from his original position?

Q183. P and S walk one and a half lengths of the side clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. Which one of the following statements is true?

Q184. P, Q, R and S walk one and a half sides clockwise. Who is on the left of Q, if he is facing West?

Q185. What was the colour combination of D’s shirt and short?

Read the following information to answer the question.
Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and green
colours.
Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.
D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.
The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.
A wore white short and pink shirt.
E did not wear red shirt.

Q186. Who wore white short?

Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and green
colours.
Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.
D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.
The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.
A wore white short and pink shirt.
E did not wear red shirt.

Q187. Which colour shirt did C wear?

Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and green
colours.
Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.
D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.
The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.
A wore white short and pink shirt.
E did not wear red shirt.

Q188. Which colour short did B wear?

Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and green
colours.
Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.
D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.
The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.
A wore white short and pink shirt.
E did not wear red shirt.

Q189. Five senior citizens are living in a multi-storied building. Mr. Bhagat lives in a flat above Mr. Ashokan, Mr. Lokesh lives in a flat below Mr. Gaurav, Mr. Ashokan lives in a flat above Mr. Gaurav and Mr. Rakesh lives in a flat below Mr. Lokesh. Who lives in the topmost flat?

Q190. Kittu is in between Mohan and Sohan & there is no other person sitting between them. Raju is to the left of Sohan and Shyam is to the right of Mohan. If all of the friends are sitting facing South, then who is on their extreme right?

Q191. A train runs 120 km in West direction, 30 km in South Direction and then 80 km in east direction before reaching the station. In which direction is the station from the train’s starting point?

Q192. Manu goes 40 km North, turns right and goes 80 km, turns right again and goes 30 km. In the end he turns right again and goes 80 km. How far is he from his starting point if he goes straight ahead another 50 km and turns left to go his last 10 km?

Q193. Coin collection and listening to music are the hobbies of

There are four friends Ravi, Hari, Manu and Jatin. One of them lives at Kanpur and his hobbies are reading and writing. Hari and
Jatin live at Lucknow. Hari’s hobby is stamp collection. Common hobby of two friends staying at Lucknow is coin collection. Ravi
lives at Allahabad. One boy staying at Lucknow also loves to hear music. The boy staying at Allahabad loves to travel and read
comics. All the boys have two hobbies each.

Q194. Which of the following is not the hobby of Ravi?

There are four friends Ravi, Hari, Manu and Jatin. One of them lives at Kanpur and his hobbies are reading and writing. Hari and
Jatin live at Lucknow. Hari’s hobby is stamp collection. Common hobby of two friends staying at Lucknow is coin collection. Ravi
lives at Allahabad. One boy staying at Lucknow also loves to hear music. The boy staying at Allahabad loves to travel and read
comics. All the boys have two hobbies each. (Note : reading and reading comics are two different hobbies)

Q195. If the third day of a month is Monday, which of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of that month?

Q196. My uncle shall visit me after 64 days of my father’s birthday. If my father’s birthday falls on Tuesday, what shall be the day on my uncle’s visit?

Q197. In a queue, Sadiq is 14th from the front and Joseph is 17th from the end, while Jane is in between Sadiq and Joseph. If Sadiq be ahead of Joseph and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Sadiq and Jane?

Q198. Jagan was to either get one-seventh of a milk chocolate or one-fourteenth of a bigger fruit chocolate. Which chocolate would give him the larger piece if the fruit chocolate is three times as large as the milk chocolate?

Q199. If such numbers which are divisible by 5, and also those which have 5 as one of the digits are eliminated from the numbers 1 to 60 (both inclusive), how many numbers would remain?

Q200. What is the number of the different letters which occur in the word PANCHATANTRA?


Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451
clock.png

Time's up

[email protected] Drop Us a Line
+91-9907252100 Call Us Now
Kalinga University Kotni Naya Raipur– 492101 Get Direction
Copyright 2020 Kalinga University, All rights reserved.
en English
bn Bengalizh-CN Chinese (Simplified)en Englishfr Frenchde Germanhi Hindija Japanesekn Kannadala Latinmr Marathine Nepalies Spanishta Tamilte Telugu
  • →
  • Free Counseling!

  • WhatsApp