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Q.1 A binary number is represented by (cdccddcccddd)2, where c > d What is its decimal equivalent?

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A. 1848

B. 2048

C. 2842

D. 2872

Q.2 Let S = {2, 4, 6, 8, ……….20}. What is the maximum number of subsets does S have?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 512

D. 1024

Q.3 Where of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements in respect of the quadratic equation 4(x - p) (x - q)- r2 = 0, where p, q and r are real numbers:

The roots are real
The roots are equal if p = q and r = 0

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4 How many real roots does the equation x2 + 3|x| + 2 = 0 have?

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Four

Q.5 If x^log7x> 7 where x > 0, then which one of the following is correct?

A. xϵ(0, ∞)

Q.6 What is the solution of x ≤ 4, y ≥ 0 and x ≤ - 4, y ≤ 0 ?

A. x ≥ -4, y ≤ 0

B. x ≤ 4, y≥ 0

C. x ≤ -4, y = 0

D. x ≥ -4, y = 0

Q.7 If 3rd, 8th and 13th terms of a GP are p, q and r respectively, then which one of the following is correct?

A. q2 = pr

B. r2 = pq

C. pqr = 1

D. 2q = p + r

Q.8 Let Sn be the sum of the first n terms of an AP. If S2n = 3n + 14n2, then what is the common difference?

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A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 9

Q.9 How many two-digit numbers are divisible by 4?

A. 21

B. 22

C. 24

D. 25

Q.10 Let a, b, c be in AP and k ≠ 0 be a real number. Which of the following are correct?

ka, kb, kc are in AP
k – a, k - b, k – c are in AP
a/k, b/k, c/k are in Ap

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11 What is C(47, 4) + C(51, 3) + C(50, 3) + C(49, 3) + C(48, 3) + C(47, 3) equal to ?

A. C(47, 4)

B. C(52, 5)

C. C(52, 4)

D. C(47, 5)

Q.12 If the constant term in the expansion of is 405, then what can be the value of k?

A. ±2

B. ±3

C. ±5

D. ±9

Q.13

A. A = {x|x> a} and B = {x|x> b}

B. A = {x|x b}

C. A = {x|x< a} and B = {x|x< b}

D. A = {x|x> a} and B = {x|x< b}

Q.14 If n! has 17 zeros, then what is the value of n?

A. 95

B. 85

C. 80

D. No such value of n exists

Q.15

A. Both AB and BA exist

B. Neither AB nor BA exists

C. AB exists but BA does not exist

D. AB does not exist but BA exists

Q.16

A. 10

B. 8

C. 5

D. 4

Q.17 How many terms are there in the expansion of

(1 + 2x + x2)5 + (1 + 4y + 4y2)5?

A. 12

B. 20

C. 21

D. 22

Q.18 If P(n, r) = 2520 and C(n, r) = 21, then what is the value of C(n + 1, r + 1)?

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A. 7

B. 14

C. 28

D. 56

Q.19 What is the value of

A. √2-1

B. √2+1

C. 3

D. 4

Q.20 If x = 1 + i, then what is the value of x6 + x4 + x2 + 1 ?

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A. 6i – 3

B. -6i + 3

C. -6i -3

D. 6i + 3

Q.21 If A = {x : 0 ≤ x ≤ 2} and B = {y; y is a prime number}, then what is A∩B equal to ?

A. ∅

B. {1}

C. {2}

D. {1, 2}

Q.22 In a school, 50% students play cricket and 40% play football. If 10% of students play both the games, then what per cent of students play neither cricket nor football?

A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 25%

Q.23

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q.24

A. 1

B. -1

C. 2i

D. -2i

Q.25 Under which one of the following conditions will the quadratic equation x2 + mx + 2 = 0 always have real roots?

Q.26 Let m and n (m < n) be the roots of the equation x2 – 16x + 39 = 0. If four terms p, q, r and s are inserted between m and n to form an AP, then what is the value of p + q + r + s?

A. 29

B. 30

C. 32

D. 35

Q.27

A. a null matrix

B. an identity matrix

C. equal to A

D. equal to -A

Q.28

A. 0

B. (a + b + c)2

C. a2 + b2 + c2

D. a + b + c - 2

Q.29

Q.30

A. 0

B. 12

C. 24

D. 36

Q.31 What is the number of diagonals of an octagon?

A. 48

B. 40

C. 28

D. 20

Q.32 If a set A contains 3 elements and another set B contains 6 elements, then what is the minimum number of elements that (A∪B) can have?

A. 3

B. 6

C. 8

D. 9

Q.33 A geometric progression (GP) consists of 200 terms. If the sum of odd terms of the GP is m, and the sum of even terms of the GP is n, then what is its common ratio?

A. m/n

B. n/m

C. m + (n/m)

D. n + (m/n)

Q.34

A. x ≤ 1 or x ≥ 2

B. 1 ≤ x ≤ 2

C. 1 < x < 2

D. x is any real value except 3 and 4

Q.35 Are equal, then which one of the following is correct?

If the roots of the equation
a(b - c)x2 + b (c – a)x + c(a - b) = 0

A. a, b and c are in AP

B. a, b and c are in GP

C. a, b and c are in HP

D. a, b and c do not follow any regular pattern

Q.36 What is the value of k for which the sum of the squares of the roots of 2x2 – 2(k - 2) x – (k + 1) = 0 is minimum?

A. -1

B. 1

C. 3/2

D. 2

Q.37 If the sum of first n terms of a series is (n + 12), then what is its third term?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q.38 If A, B and C are subsets of a given set, then which one of the following relations is not correct?

A. AU(A∩B) = AUB

B. A∩(AUB) = A

C. (A∩B)UC = (AUC)∩(BUC)

D. (AUB)∩C = (A∩C)U(B∩C)

Q.39 What is the value of

A. 51

B. 55

C. 110

D. 111

Q.40 If both p and q belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then how many equations of the form px2 + qx + 1 = 0 will have real roots?

A. 12

B. 10

C. 7

D. 6

Q.41 What is tan 25o tan 15o + tan 15o tan 50o + tan 25o tan 50o equal to?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Q.42 What is cot A + cosec A equal to ?

Q.43

A. tan A

B. cot A

C. 2tan A

D. 2cot A

Q.44 If angle C of a triangle ABC is a right angle, then what is tanA + tanB equal to?

Q45. What is cos80o + cos40o – cos20o equal to?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 0

D. -19

Q46. If 2 tan A = 3 tan B = 1, then what is tan (A - B) equal to?

Q47. What is sin(α + β)- 2 sinα cosβ + sin (α - β) equal to?

A. 0

B. 2sinα

C. 2sinβ

D. sinα + sinβ

Q48. If tan A – tan B = x and cot B – cot A = y, then what is the value of cot(A - B)?

Q49. If the angle of a triangle ABC are in AP and , then what is the measure of angle A?

A 30°

B. 45o

C. 60o

D 75o

Q50.

A. (a + b)2

B. (a - b)2

C. a2 + b2

Q51. If the point (x, y, -3), (2, 0, -1) and (4, 2, 3) lie on a straight line, then what are the values of x and y respectively?

A. 1, -1

B. -1, 1

C. 0, 2

D. 3, 4

Q52. A straight line passes through the point (1, 1, 1) makes an angle 60o with the positive direction of z-axis, and the cosine of the angles made by it with the positive directions of the y-axis and the x-axis are in the ration . What is the acute angle between the two possible positions of the line?

A. 90o

B. 60o

C. 45o

D. 30o

Q 53.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Q.54

A. (3, 5, 4)

B. (2, 5, 5)

C. (-1, -1, 5)

D. (2, -1, 0)

Q.55 A point on a line has coordinates (P+1, P-3,√2Pwhere p is any real number. What are the direction cosines of the line?

Q56.

Q57. An equilateral triangle has one vertex at (-1, -1) and another vertex at(-√3,√3)The third vertex may lie on

A. (-√2,√2)

B. (√2,-√2)

C. (1, 1)

D. (1, -1)

Q58. What is the distance between the points P(m.cos2α, m.sin2α) and Q(m.cos2β, sin2β)?

Q59. What is the angle between the lines x cos α + y sin α = a and x sin β – y cos β = a?

A. β – α

B. π + β – α

Q60. The equation ax + by + c = 0 represents a straight line

A. for all real numbers a, b and c

B. only when a ≠ 0

C. only when b ≠ 0

D. only when at least one of a and b is non-zero

Q.61 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.62 Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q.63 If the magnitude of the sum of two non-zero vectors is equal to the magnitude of their difference, then which one of the following is correct?

A. The vectors are parallel

B. The vectors are perpendicular

C. The vectors are anti-parallel

D. The vectors must be unit vectors

Q64.

Q65.

Q66. What is the length of the chord of a unit circle which subtends an
angle θ at the centre?

Q67. A ladder 9 m long reaches a point 9 m below the top of a vertical flagstaff. From the foot of the ladder, the elevation of the flagstaff is 60o. What is the height of the flagstaff?

A. 9 m

B. 10.5 m

C. 13.5 m

D. 15 m

Q68. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

cosθ + secθ can never be equal to 5
tanθ + cotθ can never be less than 2

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q69.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Q.70 The mean weight of 150 students in a certain class is 60 kg. The mean weight of boys is 70 kg and that of girls is 55 kg. What are the number of boys and girls respectively in the class?

A. 75 and 75

B. 50 and 100

C. 70 and 80

D. 100 and 50

Q71. A car travels first 60 km at a speed of 3v km/hr and travels next 60 km at 2v km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

A. 2.5v km/hr

B. 2.4v km/hr

C. 2.2v km/hr

D. 2.1v km/hr

Q.72 If V is the variance and M is the mean of first 15 natural numbers, then what is V + M2 equal to?

Q.73 If the range of a set of observations on a variable X is known to be 25 and if Y = 40 + 3X, then what is the range of the set of corresponding observations on Y?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 75

D. 115

Q.74 Mean of 100 observations is 50 and standard deviation is 10. If 5 is added to each observation, then what will be the new mean and new standard deviation respectively?

A. 50, 10

B. 50, 15

C. 55, 10

D. 55, 15

Q.75 If a fair die is rolled 4 times, then what is the probability that there are exactly 2 sixes?

Q.76 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then it is possible that P(A) = P(B)= 6
.If A and B are any two events such that P (A/B) = 1, then .

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q77. There are 3 coins in a box. One is a two-headed coin; another is a fair coin; and third is biased coin that comes up heads 75% of time. When one of the three coins is selected at random and flipped, it shows heads. What is the probability that it was the two-headed coin?

Q.78 If 5 of a Company’s 10 delivery trucks do not meet emission standards and 3 of them are chosen for inspection, then what is the probability that none of the trucks chosen meet emission standards?

A. 1/8

B. 3/8

C. 1/12

D. 1/4

Q.79 Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers appearing on them is a prime number?

Q.80 What is the value of median of the distribution?

Consider the following discrete frequency distribution:

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Q.81 If a coin is tossed till the first head appears, then what will be the sample space?

A. {H}

B. {TH}

C. {T, HT, HHT, HHHT, }

D. {H, TH, TTH, TTTH, }

Q.82 The mean of 5 observations is 4.4 and variance is 8.24. If three of the five observations are 1, 2 and 6, then what are the other two observations?

A. 9, 16

B. 9, 4

C. 81, 16

D. 81, 4

Q.83 The class marks in a frequency table are given to be 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50. The class limits of the first five classes are

A. 3-7, 7-13, 13-17, 17-23, 23-27

B. 2.5-7.5, 7.5-12.5, 12.5-17.5, 17.5-22.5, 22.5-27.5

C. 1.5-8.5, 8.5-11.5, 11.5-18.5, 18.5-21.5, 21.5-28.5

D. 2-8, 8-12, 12-18, 18-22, 22-28

Q.84 If p and q are the roots of the equation x2 – 30x + 221 = 0, what is the value of p3 + q3?

A. 7010

B. 7110

C. 7210

D. 7240

Q.85 Arithmetic mean of 10 observation is 60 and sum of squares of deviations from 50 is 5000. What is the standard deviation of the observation?

A. 20

B. 21

C. 22.36

D. 24.70

Q.86 The median of the observations 22, 24, 33, 37, x + 1, x + 3, 46, 47, 57, 58 in ascending order is 42. What are the values of 5th and 6th observations respectively?

A. 42, 45

B. 41, 43

C. 43, 46

D. 40, 40

Q.87 A bag contains 20 books out of which 5 are defective. If 3 of the books are selected at random and removed from the bag in succession without replacement, then what is the probability that all three books are defective?

A. 0.0087

B. 0.016

C. 0.026

D. 0.047

Q.90 A coin is biased so that heads comes up thrice as likely as tails. For three independent tosses of a coin, what is the probability of getting at most two tails?

A. 0.16

B. 0.48

C. 0.58

D. 0.98

Q.91

T = (-∞, 2) U (3, ∞) and S = (2, 3)

2. T = (-∞, 2) U (3, ∞) and S = (2, 3)

3. T = (-∞, 2) U (3, ∞) and S = (2, 3)

4. T = (2, 3) and S = (-∞, 2) ∪ (3, ∞)

Q.92 What is the area of the region enclosed between the curve y2 = 2x and the straight line y = x?

Q.93 The differential equation which represents the family of curves given by tany = c(1 - ex) is

A. ex tan y dx + (1 - ex) dy = 0

B. ex tan y dx + (1 - ex)sec2y dy = 0

C. ex (1 - ex)dx + tan y dy = 0

D. ex tan y dy + (1 - ex)dx = 0

Q.94 What is the value of I1 + I2?

A. 2π

B. π

D. 0

E. 4

Q.95 What is the value of I1?

A. 0

B. π

C. 2π

D. 4

Q.96 If h(x) = 5 f(x) – xg(x), then what is the derivative of h(x) ?

A. -40

B. -20

C. -10

D. 0

Q.97 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

f[g(x)] is a polynomial of degree
g[g(x)] is a polynomial of degree

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.98 What are the roots of the equation g[f(x)]=0?

A. 1, -1

B. -1, -1

C. 1, 1

D. 0, 1

Q.99 In which one of the following intervals is the function decreasing?

A. (-2, 3)

B. (3, 4)

C. (4, 6)

D. (6, 9)

Q.100 In which one of the following intervals is the function increasing?

A. (-2, 3)

B. (3, 4)

C. (-3, -2)

D. (-4, -3)

Q.101 Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012 — 2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

A. 7 percent

B. 8 percent

C. 9 percent

D. 10 percent

Q.102 Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

A. Non-Conventional energy resources

B. Roads

C. Higher Education

D. Libraries

Q.103 Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

A. Friedrich Engels

B. Eric Hobsbawm

C. Arnold Toynbee

D. Georges Michelet

Q.104 Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?

A. Its centre was Maharashtra

B. Its main participants were students

C. It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

D. It publicly burnt foreign clothes

Q.105 Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

A. The Bengal British India Society

B. The East India Association

C. The British Indian Association

D. The Madras Native Association

Q.106 Mariana Trench is located on the ocean floor of –

A. Southern Atlantic Ocean

B. Western Pacific Ocean

C. Eastern Pacific Ocean

D. Northern Atlantic Ocean

Q.107 Taklamakan Desert is situated in -

A. Western Asia

B. Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa

C. South America

D. Central Asia

Q.108 Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and

A. Bhagirathi

B. Mandukini

C. Nandakini

D. Dhauliganga

Q.109 Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from West to East:

1. Bilaspur
2. Jodhpur
3. Bhopal
4. Ranchi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 3-2-1-4

B. 2-3-1-4

C. 4-1-2-3

D. 2-1-3-4

Q.110 The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by

A. South-west Monsoon

B. Western Disturbances

C. Retreating Monsoon

D. Temperate Cyclone

Q.111 Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary Coal Field –

A. Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

B. Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal

C. Himalayan mountain region

D. Cardamom Hills in Kerala

Q.112 Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compact bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein -

A. Fibrin

B. Collagen

C. Elastin

D. Cellulose

Q.113 Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis?

A. Ascaris Lurnbricoid’s

B. Culexpipiens

C. Wuchereria Bancrofti

D. Fasciola Hepatica

Q.114 Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against -

A. Ultraviolet Radiation

B. Infrared Radiation

C. X-ray Radiation

D. Short Wave Radio Radiation

Q.115 Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level -

A. Food fibres

B. Nucleic acids

C. Lipids

D. Carbohydrates

Q.116 Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct?

A. They are used in sewage treatment plants.

B. They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages

C. No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

D. They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases.

Q.117 Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of –

A. Omega-3 fatty acids

B. Vitamin A

C. Vitamin B

D. Vitamin C

Q.118 An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Centripetal Acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., the curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., the curve of smaller radius).

B. The Centripetal Acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve.

C. The Centripetal Acceleration is the same for both the gentle and sharp curves

D. The Centripetal Acceleration causes the object to slow down.

Q. 119 The symbol of the SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for -

A. Holm

B. Halogen

C. Henry

D. Hertz

Q.120 In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that

(a) t1 > t2 > t3

(b) t1 > t3 > t2

(d) t1 = t2 = t2

Q.121 Electron Emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as -

A. Thermionic Emission

B. Photoelectric Emission

C. High field Emission

D. Auto electronic Emission

Q.122 How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun?

A. About 4 minutes

B. About 8 minutes

C. About 24 minutes

D. About 24 hours

Q.123 Radioactivity is measured by-

A. GM Counter

B. Polarimeter

C. Calorimeter

D. Colorimeter

Q.124 The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are -

A. Concave

B. Convex

C. Cylindrical

D. Plane

Q.125 Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes?

A. Ultraviolet Waves

B. Infrared Waves

C. Radio Waves

D. Microwaves

Q.126 The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are –

A. Free Electrons

B. Conduction Electrons

C. Ions

D. Holes

Q.127 The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is -

A. 13.6 MeV

B. 13.6 eV

C. 13.6 Joule

D. Zero

Q.128 When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of –

A. Air

B. Hydrogen

C. Hydrogen and Oxygen

D. Water Vapour

Q.129 Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution?

A. HCl

B. CH3COOH

C. CH3OH

D. NaOH

Q.130 The principal use of Hydrofluoric Acid is -

A. in etching glass

B. as a bleaching agent

C. as an extremely strong oxidizing agent

D. in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds

Q.131 The compound C6H12O4 contains –

A. 22 atoms per mole

B. twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C

C. six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

D. thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of 0

Q.132 The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure' is known as -

A. Avogadro's Hypothesis

B. Gay-Lussac's Hypothesis

C. Planck's Hypothesis

D. Kirchhoff's Theory

Q.133 Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct?

A. It proposed that the Indian Magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

C. It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts.

D. It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists.

Q.134 Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House?

A. The Solicitor General of India

B. The Vice-President of India

C. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

D. The Attorney General of India

Q.135 Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857?

A. Mangal Pandey

B. Bahadur Shah II

C. Queen Zeenat Mahal

D. Nana Sahib

Q.136 Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?

A. Murshid Quli Khan

B. Saadat Khan

C. Alivardi Khan

D. Sarfaraz Khan

Q.137 Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement?

A. Henry Vivian Derozio

B. David Hare

C. Dwarkanath Tagore

D. Prasanna Kumar Tagore

Q.138 Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct?

A. It broke out in August 1942.

B. Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months.

C. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

D. Communist Party did not support the movement.

Q.139 Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men's Singles title 2017?

A. Kidambi Srikanth

B. Lin Dan

C. Sai Praneeth

D. Kento Momota

Q.140 Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in -

A. Nagpur

B. Raipur

C. Mumbai

D. Secunderabad

Q.141 Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017?

A. The Heritage of Sport

B. Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

C. Past and Present Heritage

D. Heritage and Science

Q.142 In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast, popularly known as the Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the following countries?

A. Iran

B. Syria

C. Afghanistan

D. Somalia

Q.143 Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Government of India to examine the framework for virtual currencies?

A. Secretary, Department of Financial Services

B. Special Secretary, Department of Revenue

C. Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

D. Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Q.144 SAMPADA Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of –

A. Finance

B. Housing and Urban Affairs

C. Food Processing Industries

D. Earth Sciences

Q.145 The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on

A. 21st March

B. 23rd September

C. 22nd November

D. 22nd December

Q146. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following has taken place in recent years?

1. Gauge conversion
2. Track electrification
3. Automatic signals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q.147 In India, the maximum amount of rainfall is received from -

A. Western Disturbances

B. North-East Monsoon

C. South-West Monsoon

D. Retreating Monsoon

Q.148 Which set of the following Biosphere Reserves in India is included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves?

A. Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal

B. Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam

C. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna

D. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam

Q.149 Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?

1. It is known as black ore.
2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.
3. It possesses magnetic properties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q.150 Which one of the following vitamins has a role in Blood Clotting -

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin K

Q.151 The term `Probiotic' is applied to -

A. Organic food

B. Antacid

C. Antibiotic

D. Live microbial food supplement

Q.152 Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk?

A. Lactic Acid Bacillus

B. Clostridium botulinum

C. Vibrio Cholerae

D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Q.153 Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids?

A. Erwin Chargaff

B. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

C. Rosalind Franklin

D. Phoebus Levene

Q.154 Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes because

A. the air pressure is less

B. outside temperature is less

C. latent heat is less

D. None of the above

Q.155 Concave Mirror is used in headlights of vehicles because it

A. focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles

B. sends parallel rays

C. fits well into the shape of the headlight

Q.156 If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in the air?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain exactly the same

D. Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

Q.157 Light year is a measure of –

A. time

B. distance

C. the total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year

D. the average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year

Q.158 Which one of the following statements about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is correct?

A. Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from the ground station.

B. Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket, and solar energy keeps it moving around the

C. Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting.

D. Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting.

Q.159 Which one of the following statements about energy is correct?

A. Energy can be created as well as destroyed.

B. Energy can be created but not destroyed.

C. Energy can neither 'be created nor destroyed.

D. Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed.

Q.160 Step-up transformers are used for –

A. increasing Electrical Power

B. decreasing Electrical Power

C. decreasing Voltage

D. increasing Voltage

Q.161 Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?

A. X-rays

B. Radio waves

C. Light waves

D. Microwaves

Q.162 How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon?

(a) 11/3 kg

(b) 3/11 kg

(d) 3/4 kg

Q.163 Zinc is used to protect the iron from corrosion because zinc is -

A. more electropositive than iron

B. cheaper than iron

C. a bluish-white metal

D. a good conductor of heat and electricity

Q.164 Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen

D. Carbon dioxide

Q.165 Which one of the following is a chemical change?

A. Cutting of hair

B. Greying of hair naturally

C. Swelling of resin in water

D. Cutting of fruit

Q.166 Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda?

A. Calcium carbonate

B. Calcium bicarbonate

C. Sodium carbonate

D. Sodium bicarbonate

Q.167 Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water?

A. It kills germs

B. It dissolves the impurities

C. It is a reducing agent

D. It is an oxidizing agent

Q.168 Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order?

Consider the following movements :
1. Moplah Rebellion
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Salt Satyagraha

A. 1-3-4-2

B. 3-1-2-4

C. 2-3-1-4

D. 4-2-1-3

Q.169 Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight into the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq?

A. Ibn Battuta’s Rihla

B. Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul Empire

C. Niccolo Manuccis Storm do Mogor

D. Tavernier Travels in India

Q.170 Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint?

A. Khwaja Moinuddin

B. Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar

C. Nizamuddin Auliya

D. Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

Q.171 In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi’s -

A. Satyagraha in Kheda

B. Dandi March

C. Satyagraha in Champaran

D. Return from South Africa

Q.172 A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomena?

A. Dispersion of light

B. Interference of light

C. Diffraction of light

D. Scattering of light by atmospheric dust

Q.173 Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected -

A. Infrasonic waves

B. Ultrasonic waves

C. Radio waves

D. Microwaves

Q.174 The statement that ‘heat cannot flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature’, is known as

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

D. Third law of thermodynamics

Q.175 Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three?

A. X-rays

B. Microwaves

C. Radio waves

D. Sound waves

Q.176 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

B. The retina of the human eye contains millions of light-sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages.

C. Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down.

D. We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately.

Q.177 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Ultrasonic Waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed.

B. Ultrasonic Waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal structure of common Structure materials.

C. Ultrasonic Waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like Diamond.

D. Ultrasonic Waves cannot travel through a vacuum.

Q.178 According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked

A. 50th

B. 40th

C. 30th

D. 20th

Q.179 Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017, celebrated by the World Health Organization?

A. Diabetes

B. Food Safety

C. Depression : Let’s Talk

D. Ageing and Health

Q.180 Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new programme on interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D?

A. Ministry of Earth Sciences

B. Ministry of Science and Technology

C. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

D. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Q.181 Which of the statements given above is/are correc

Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture:
1. This style of temples is commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal Shikhara.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.182 Ashoka’s connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts -

A. Major Rock Edict - XIII

B. Rock Edict - VI

C. Minor Rock Edict - I

D. Pillar Edict - IV

Q.183 The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a –

A. Federation

B. Confederation

C. Unitary form of Government

D. Union of States

Q.184 The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by -

A. Law Commission

B. Santhanam Committee

C. Shah Commission

D. Administrative Reforms Commission

Q.185 Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains?

A. Ozone

B. Ammonia

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Carbon monoxide

Q.186 The desirable range of pH for drinking water is

A. 6.5 to 8.5

B. 5.0 to 6.5

C. 6.5 to 7.0

D. 7.0 to 8.5

Q.187 Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct?

Consider the following reaction:
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
1. Carbon is oxidized
2. Hydrogen is oxidized.
3. Hydrogen is reduced.
4. Carbon is reduced.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Q.188 Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat -

A. One hour

B. Two hours

C. Three hours

D. Four hours

Q.189 Which one of the following is the correct descending order?

Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the
total area of the State:
1. Karnataka
2. Odisha
3. Kerala
4. Andhra Pradesh

A. 1-2-4-3

B. 3-1-2-4

C. 3-2-1-4

D. 2-3-1-4

Q.190 Which one of the following States in India has the longest coastline?

A. Odisha

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Karnataka

D. West Bengal

Q.191 Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?

A. Maharashtra

B. Chhattisgarh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q.192 Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?

A. Gabbro

B. Granite

C. Dolomite

D. Basalt

Q.193 The Coriolis effect is the result of –

A. Pressure gradient

B. Earth’s axis of inclination

C.Earth’s rotation

D. Earth’s revolution

Q.194 Where is Mekong Delta located?

A. Thailand

B. Cambodia

C.Myanmar

D. Vietnam

Q.195 Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?

A. Godavari : Indravati

B. Ganga : Penganga

C.Krishna : Bhima

D. Luni : Sukri

Q.196 The above-mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its development?

Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone:
1. A warm sea temperature of > 26oC
2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m
3. Atmospheric instability

A. Formulation and initial stage

B. Modification stage

C.Full maturity

D. Decay

Q.197 In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?

A. Dilmun

B. Meluha

C.Magan

D. Failaka

Q.198 The filament of a light bulb is made up of:

a) Platinum

b) Tantalum

c) Tungsten

d) Antimony

Q.199 Which of the following is false?

Sound waves are ____________ waves.

a) Pressure

b) Longitudinal

c) Electromagnetic

d) Mechanical

Q.200 Which of the following coloured light has the lowest frequency?

a) Green

b) Blue

c) Red

Q.201 The period of artificial geostationary satellite is:

a) 8 hours

b) 12 hours

c) 24 hours

d) 46 hours

Q.202 The value of universal gravitational constant G is:

a) 9.8 m/s2

b) 6.673×10-11 N m2 kg-2

c) 6.371 x 106 m

d) 1.738 x 10 6 m

Q203. What is the unit of the magnitude of the weight?

a) Distance (meter)

b) Mass (grams)

c) Force (Newton)

d) None of the above

Q.204 What is the value of Pi?

a) 3.14159

b) 3.14358

c) 3.14258

d) 3.14289

Q.205 Which of the following is the best electricity conductor?

a) Copper

b) Aluminium

c) Iron

d) Silver

Q.206 Small liquid drops are spherical in shape because

a) of adhesion

b) of gravitational force

c) of the atmospheric pressure from all the sides on the top

d) the liquid tends to have the minimum surface area are due to surface tension

Q.207 The Chandershekhar Limit is related to which of the following?

a) Stars

b) Black holes

c) Both of these

d) None of these

Q.208 A Light Year is a measure of

a) Light intensity

b) Time

c) Distance

d) None of the Above

Q.209 In the Solar System, asteroids circle between these two planets.

a) Venus and Mars

b) Mars and Earth

c) Mars and Jupiter

d) Jupiter and Saturn

Q.210 Identify the pair that is correctly matched?

a) Madam Curie: X – ray

b) Albert Einstein: Photoelectric effect

c) Linus Pauling: Electron

d) C V Raman: Stark effect

Q.211 Refraction, Reflection, Dispersion and Diffraction are associated with

a) Light

b) Sound

c) Magnetism

d) None of the Above

Q.212 The minimum possible temperature beyond which matter cannot be cooled is in degree Centigrades is:

a) 95.50

b) 100

c) 273.15

d) 473.50

Q.213 Who among the following is credited for discovering the principles underlying electromagnetic induction?

a) Michael Faraday

b) Volta

c) Coulomb

d) Gauss

Q.214 Which of the following statement is correct about Pi?

a) It is non-repeating decimal value

b) It is non terminating decimal value

c) It is repeating and terminating decimal value

d) It is non-repeating, non-terminating decimal value

Q.215 It is on this principle, the quartz clock works.

a) Piezo-electric effect

b) Gauss effect

c) Relativistic effect

d) Mass defect

Q.216 Who has calculated the circumference of the earth and considered the value of Pi = 22/7?

a) Archimedes

b) John Machin's

c) Aryabhatta

d) None of the above

Q.217 Cryogenic engines find applications in:

(a) sub-marine propulsion

(b) frost-free refrigerators

(d) researches in superconductivity

Q.218 The clouds float in the atmosphere because of low:

(a) temperature

(b) velocity

(d) density

Q.219 Pi consists of how many digits?

a) 9 digits

b) 10 digits

c) 12 digits

d) Infinite

Q.220 In context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.

Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

Q.221 An air bubble in water will act like a:

(a) convex mirror

(b) convex lens

(d) cancave lens

Q.222 When a mirror is rotated by an angle 0, the reflected ray will rotate by:

(a) 0°

(b) 0/2

(d) 20

Q.223 Which of the following statement is true about ionic compounds?

Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.
Ionic compounds are not soluble in water.
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids.

Correct options are:

a) Both 1 and 3

b) Both 1 and 2

c) Both 2 and 3

d) All the three

Q.224 The solution of one of the following compounds will conduct electricity. This compound is:

a) CCl4

b) HCl

c) CaCl2

d) CH3Cl

Q.225 What is an ionic bond?

a) Ionic bond is formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms.

b) It is a bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

c) Both A and B are correct

d) None of the above

Q.226 What is C12H12O11 also known as:

a) Sand

b) Sugar

c) Salt

d) Clay

Q.227 The only non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:

a) Mercury

b) Bromine

c) Chlorine

d) Gallium

Q.228 Choose the one which is different or odd from the following.

a) Aluminum

b) Iron

c) Copper

d) Brass

Q.229 Name the ions present in Sodium Oxide compound?

a) Sodium ions

b) Oxide ions

c) Both A and B

d) Neither A nor B

Q.230 Which of the following are electrovalent compounds?

a) Copper sulphate

b) Calcium nitrate

c) Magnesium oxide

d) All of the above

Q.231 What is the electronic configuration of calcium ion (Ca2+):

a) 2,8

b) 2,8,2

c) 2,8,4

d) 2,8,8

Q.232 Name the salt when on dissolving in water give an acidic solution?

a) Potassium Chloride

b) Ammonium Chloride

c) Sodium Carbonate

d) Sodium Acetate

Q.233 Bleaching powder is formed by treating chlorine with.......

a) Calcium Hydroxide

b) Potassium Hydrogen carbonate

c) Magnesium Hydroxide

d) None of the above

Q.234 Name the salt whose aqueous solution will turn blue litmus to red?

a) Sodium Acetate

b) Potassium Sulphate

c) Potassium Carbonate

d) Ammonium Sulphate

Q.235 Name an acid which contains both oxygen and hydrogen?

a) Oxy acid

b) Hydra acid

c) Dilute acid

d) Concentrated acid

Q.236 What is the chemical name of Baking Soda?

a) Potassium Carbonate

b) Potassium Hydrogen Carbonate

c) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate

d) Sodium Carbonate

Q.237 What is battery acid?

a) It is sulphuric acid diluted with water.

b) It is carboxylic acid mixed with water.

c) It is concentrated hydrochloric acid.

d) It is concentrated sulphuric acid.

Q.238 In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach

b) Food Pipe

c) Mouth

d) Small Intestine

Q.239 Which of the following organism have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium

b) Plasmodium

c) Paramecium

d) Parrot

Q.240 Name the first enzyme that mix with food in the digestive tract?

a) Pepsin

b) Trypsin

c) Amylase

d) None of the above

Q.241 Which of the following in biology is the energy currency of cells?

a) PDP

b) DTP

c) ATP

d) ADP

Q.242 Which of the following was the first antibiotic discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928?

a) Penicillin

b) Prontosil

c) Streptomycin

d) Tetracycline

Q.243 In 1981, ISRO launched India’s first geostationary satellite called -

a) Aryabhata

b) APPLE

c) Bhaskara II

d) INSAT lB

Q.244 In the stem of a plant respiration and breathing takes place through:

a) Lenticels

b) Stomata

c) Root hair

d) Air tubes

Q.245 Name the blood vessel which carries blood back to the heart?

a) Vein

b) Artery

c) Capillaries

d) Platelet

Q.246 After wound or cut in a body blood coagulates through:

a) WBC

b) RBC

c) Platelets

d) Plasma

Q.247 Consider the following

It was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
It was protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct about Champaran Satyagraha?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

Q.248 When did M. K. Gandhi arrive in Champaran?

a) April, 1915

b) April, 1916

c) April, 1917

Q.249 Which of the following statement is not correct about 'Bombay Plan'?

a) The Bombay Plan is also called the 'Tata Bidla Plan'

b) It was started in 1944

c) Its draft was prepared by the John Mathai

Q.250 Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) There is no constitutional provision in India about the Planning Commission

b) Planning commission was established in January 1951

c) National Development Council was established in August 1952

d) Jawaharlal Nehru, was the first chairman of the Planning Commission

Q.251 Who started the 'Gandhian Plan'?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) M.N. Roy

d) None of the above

Q.252 Who was the revenue collector during Vedic period?

a) Senani

b) Jivagribha

c) Bhagadugha

d) Madhyamasi

Q.253 Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The first five year plan was launched from 1st April, 1951

b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India

c) The National Development Council used to give final approval to the Five Year Plan

d) The first five year plan was based on the Harrod- Domar model

Q.254 What was the ancient name of Shivalik Hills?

a) Manak Parbat

b) Mahabharata Hills

c) Shiva Parvat

d) None of the above

Q.255 Who among the following was the founder of Rashtrakutas?

a) Dantidurga

b) Yashovarman

c) Mihir Bhoja

d) Vakpatiraja

Q.256 Who among the following ruling dynasty of early Medieval India called themselves descendants of Satyaki?

a) Pala

b) Rashtrakutas

c) Chola

d) Vijayanagara

Q.257 The process of Constitutional amendment in India is taken from........?

a) America

b) Japan

c) South Africa

d) Canada

Q.258 Match the following:-

Set I	Set II
1. Vijaycholeshwar 2. Balsubramaniyam 3. Kornagnain 4. Tiruvaleswaram	1. Vijayalaya 2. Aditaya I 3. Vartak I 4. Raj Raj I

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 3 4 2 1

d) 1 4 3 2

Q.259 Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct about tripartite struggle of early medieval India?

The tripartite struggle was between the Pratiharas, Palas and Rashtrakuta.
Fight was to acquire supremacy over Kanauj, a symbol of prestige in Indian politics.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

Q.260 Which of the following is not ruling class of Kashmir?

a) Karkota

b) Utpala

c) Loharas

d) Senas

Q.261 Which one of was the significant feature of the Quit India Movement?

(a) Women did not play an important role in the movement

(b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement

(d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

Q.262 Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement

(b) It was not supported by the Congress

(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

Q.263 Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India?

(a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire

(b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues

(d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities

Q.264 Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) H. H. Risley

(d) Sir Lancelot Hare

Q.265 Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Kalyanji Mehta

Q.266 Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam?

(a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth

(b) He believed in universal education

(d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base

Q.267 Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): All rivers originating from the Himalayas are perennial.

Reason (R): Himalayas receive much of their precipitation from South-Western monsoon.

a) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d) (A) is the false, but (R) is true.

Q.268 Which of the following term is correctly used for the flat plain along the sub-Himalayan region in North India?

a) Tarai

b) Doon

c) Khadar

d) Bhabar

Q.269 Shivalik Hills are part of which of the following?

a) Aravali

b) Western Ghatb) Western Ghatss

c) Himalaya

d) Satpura

Q.270 The Nanda Devi is located in which of the following state?

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Jammu & Kashmir

c) Uttarakhand

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