NDA-2

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1.He nodded absently throughout the mecting

(a) capably

(b) alertly

(C)agitatedly

(d) dreamily

2. I fully believe that the cornerstone of good policy is an electorate that is educated on the national issues.

(a) cerebral

b) enlightened

(c)ignorant

(d) erudite

3.For important medical decisions, even finding a doctor you trust is not enough.

(a) significant

(b) by trivial

(d) probable

4.Planets move in their orbits.

(a) push

(b) rotate

(d) flow

5.Temperature is a measure of internal energy of an object and is frequently expressed by physicists in units of Kelvin.

(a) found

(b) told

(d) concealed

6. People argue about why Venus is so much warmer than the Earth.

(a) friendlier

(b) bycolder

(d) heavier

7.Scientists are concerned whether the oceans and land biosphere will take up as much carbon in the future as they presently do.

(a) worried

(b) indifferent

(c)curious

(d) puzzled

8.The biggest debate among scientists today is about cloud feedback.

(a) contend

(b) moot

(d)agreement

9. The Earth's climate sensitivity is conventionally defined as the equili-brium temperature increase caused by a doubling of carbon dioxide.

(a) imperviousness

(b) willingness

(d) closeness

10.The oceans cary a huge amount of heat from the tropics to the high latitudes.

(a) significant

(b) major

(d) dormant

(a) PRQQs

(b) QRPS

(d) PQ RS

12.She got the divorce within no time.

(a) detachment

(b) breaking down

(d) punishment

13.He was known for his gentle dis-position.

(a) harmful

(b) amiable

(d) adjusting

14.The harder we kick, the better the ball bounces back.

(a) recoils

(b) deflates

(C)inflates

(d) ascends

15.I plan and execute

(a) desire

(b) debate

(c)accomplish

(d) discard

16.He listened to me with equanimity

(a) carelessly

(b) excitedly

(d) half-heartedly

17.The whole thing was a futile exercise.

(a) costly

(b) pointless

(d) successful

18.He was too cunning for her.

(a) capable

(b) fit

(d) dodgy

19.This decision is crucial for me.

(a) momentous

(b) natural

(d) inept

20.The media went into a frenzy about the case.

(a) silent

(b) creative

(d) wrong

21.He has been yearning to go home.

(a) declining

(b) demanding

(d) hankering

22. If an infinite GP has the first term x and the sum 5, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) x < - 10

(b) – 10 < x < 0

(d) x > 10

23.A square matrix A is called orthogonal if

(a) A = A2

(b) A’ = A-1

(d) A = A’

24.If A, B and C are subsets of a Universal set, then which one of the following is not correct?

(a) A ∪ (B ∩ C) = (A ∪ B) ∩ (A ∪ C)

(b) A’ ∪ (A ∪ B) = (B’ ∩ A)’ ∪ A

(d) (A ∩ B) ∪ C = (A ∪ C) ∩ (B ∪ C)

25.Let x be the number of integers lying between 2999 and 8001 which have at least two digits equal. Then x is equal to

(a) 2480

(b) 2481

(d) 2483

26.The sum of the series 3 – 1 + (1/3) – (1/9) + …… is equal to

(a) 20/9

(b) 9/20

(d) 4/9

27.How many students like to play all the three games?

(a) 14

(b) 21

(d) 35

28.How many students like to play exactly only one game?

(a) 196

(b) 228

(d) 268

29.If ∝ and β (≠ 0) are the roots of the quadratic equations x2 + ∝x – β = 0, then the quadratic expression – x2 + ∝x + β where x θ R has

(a) Least Value – 1/4

(b) Least Value – 9/4

(d) Greatest Value 9/4

30.What is the coefficient of the middle term in the binomial expansion of (2 + 3x)4?

(a) 6

(b) 12

(d) 216

31.For a square matrix A, which of the following properties hold?

(A^-1)^-1 = A
det (A^-1) = 1/det A
(λA)^-1 = λA^-1 Where λ is a scalar

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

32.There are 17 cricket players, out of which 5 players can bowl. In how many ways can a team of 11 players be selected so as to include 3 bowlers?

(a) C (17, 11)

(b) C (12, 8)

(d) C (5, 3) x C (12, 8)

33.What is the value of log9 27 + log8 32?

(a) 7/2

(b) 19/6

(d) 7

34.If A and B are two invertible square matrices of same order, then what is (AB)-1 equal to?

(a) B-1 A-1

(b) A-1 B-1

(d) A-1 B

35.

(a) 16

(b) -16

(d) -8

36.The system of equations

2x + y – 3z = 5,

3x – 2y + 2z = 5 and

5x – 3y – z = 16

(a) is inconsistent

(b) is consistent, with a unique solution

(d) has its solutions lying along x-axis in three-dimensional space

37.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the cube roots of unity?

(a) They are collinear

(b) They lie on a circle of radius√3

(d) None of the above

38.Let the coefficient of the middle term of the binomial expansion of (1 + x)2n be α and those of two middle terms of the binomial expansion of (1 + x)2n – 1 be β and γ. Which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) α > β + γ

(b) α < β + γ

(d) α = β + γ

39.. Let A = [x ∈ R : - 1 ≤ x ≤ 1], B = [y ∈ R : - 1 ≤ y ≤ 1] and S be the subset if A x B, defined by S = [(x, y) ∈ A x B : x2 + y2 = 1].

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) S is a one-one function from A into B

(b) S is a many-one function from A into B

(d) S is not a function

40.. Let Tr be the rth term of an AP for r = 1, 2, 3, …… If for some distinct positive Integers m and n we have Tm = 1/n and Tn = 1/m, then what is Tmn equal to?

(a) (mn)-1

(b) m-1 + n-1

(d) 0

41.f(x) is such a quadratic expression that it is positive for all real x. If g(x) = f(x) + f”(x), then for any real x

(a) g(x) < 0

(b) g(x) > 0

(d) g(x) ≥ 0

42.Consider the following in respect of matrices A, B and C of same order:

(A + B + C)’ = A’ + B’ + C’
(AB)’ = A’B’
(ABC)’ = C’B’A’
Where A’ is the transpose of the matrix A.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

43.The sum of the binary numbers (11011)2, (10110110)2 and (10011x0y)2 is the binary number (101101101)2. What are the values of x and y?

(a) x = 1, y = 1

(b) x = 1, y = 0

(d) x = 0, y = 0

44.Let matrix B be the adjoint of a square matrix A, l be the identity matrix of same order as A. If k (≠0) is the determinant of the matrix A, the what is AB equal to?

(a) l

(b) Kl

(d) (1/k)l

45.If (0.2)x = 2 and log10 2 = 0.3010, then what is the value of x to the nearest tenth?

(a) – 10.0

(b) – 0.5

(d) – 0.2

46.

(a) (x – y) (y – z) (z – x)

(b) (x – y) (y – z)

(d) (z – x)2 (x + y + z)

47.

(a) The triangle ABC is isosceles

(b) The triangle ABC is equilateral

(d) No Conclusion can be drawn with regard to the nature of the triangle

48.Consider the following in respect of matrices A and B of same order:

A² – B² = (A + B) (A – B)
(A – I) (I + A) = 0 ↔ A² = I

Where I is the identity matrix and O is the null matrix.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49.What is (2 tan θ/1 + tan2 θ) equal to?

(a) cos 2θ

(b) tan 2θ

(d) cosec 2θ

50.If sec (θ - α), sec θ and sec (θ + α) are in AP, where cos α ≠ 1, then what is the value of sin2θ + cos α?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 1/2

51.If A + B + C = 180°, then what is sin 2A – sin 2B – sin 2C equal to?

(a) – 4 sin A sin B sin C

(b) – 4 cos A sin B cos C

(d) – 4 sin A cos B cos C

52.A balloon is directly above one end of a bridge. The angle of depression of the other end of the bridge from the balloon is 48°. If the height of the balloon above the bridge is 122m, then what is the length of the bridge?

(a) 122 sin 48° m

(b) 122 tan 42° m

(d) 122 tan 48° m

53.A is an angle in the fourth quadrant. It satisfies the trigonometric equation 3(3 – tan2 A – cot A)2 = 1. Which one of the following is a value of A?

(a) 300°

(b) 315°

(d) 345°

54.If x, x - y and x + y are the angles of a triangle (not an equilateral triangle) such that tan (x - y), tan x and tan (x + y) are in GP, then what is x equal to?

(a) π/4

(b) π/3

(d) π/2

(a) cos β = 1 – tan2 α/1 + tan2 α

(b) cos β = 1 + tan2 α/1 - tan2 α

(d) sin β = 2 sin2 α

56.If a flag-staff of 6 m height placed on the top of a tower throws a shadow of 2√3 m along the ground, then what is the angle that the sun makes with the ground?

(a) 60°

(b) 45°

(d) 15°

57.What is tan-1 (1/4) + tan-1 (3/5) equal to?

(a) 0

(b) π/4

(d) π/2

58.A spherical balloon of radius r subtends an angle α at the eye of an observer, while the angle of elevation of its centre is β. What is the height of the centre of the balloon (neglecting the height of the observer)?

(a) r sin β/sin(α/2)

(b) r sin β/sin(α/4)

(d) r sin α/sin(β/2)

59.If sin (x + y)/sin (x - y) = a + b/a – b, then what is tan x/tan y is equal to?

(a) a/b

(b) b/a

(d) a – b/a + b

60.If sin α + sin β = 0 = cos α + cos β, where 0 < β < α < 2π, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) α = π – β

(b) α = π + β

(d) 2α = π + 2β

61.Suppose cos A is given. If only one value of cos (A/2) is possible, then A must be

(a) An odd multiple of 90°

(b) A multiple of 90°

(d) A multiple of 180°

62.If cos α + cos β + cos γ = 0, where 0 < α ≤ π/2, 0 < β ≤ π/2, 0 < γ ≤ π/2, then what is the value of sin α + sin β + sin γ?

(a) 0

(b) 3

(d) 3√2/2

63.The maximum value of sin (x + π/5) + cos (x + π/5), where x ∈ (0, π/2), is attained at

(a) π/20

(b) π/15

(d) π/2

64.What is the angle between the straight lines (m2 - mn) y = (mn + n2) x + n3 and (mn + m2) y = (mn - n2) x + m3, where m > n?

(a) tan-1 (2mn/m2 + n2)

(b) tan-1 (4m2n2/m4 – n4)

(d) 45°

65.What is the equation of the straight line cutting off an intercept 2 from the negative direction of y-y-axis and inclined at 30° with the positive direction of x-axis?

(a) x – 2 √3 y – 3√2 = 0

(b) x + 2 √3 y – 3√2 = 0

(d) x – √3 y – 2√3 = 0

66.What is the equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of the lines x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 2x – y + 5 = 0 and parallel to the line y – x + 10 = 0?

(a) 7x – 7y + 18 = 0

(b) 5x – 7y + 18 = 0

(d) x – y + 5 = 0

67.Consider the following statements:

The length p of the perpendicular from the origin to the line ax + by = c satisfies the relation p² = c²/a² + b².
The length p of the perpendicular from the origin to the line x/a + y/b = 1 satisfies the relation 1/p² = 1/a² + 1/b².
The length p of the perpendicular from the origin to the line y = mx + c satisfies the relation 1/p² = 1 + m² + c²/c².
Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 only

(d) 2 only

68.What is the equation of the ellipse whose vertices are (± 5, 0) and foci are at (± 4, 0)?

(a) x2/25 + y2/9 = 1

(b) x2/16 + y2/9 = 1

(d) x2/9 + y2/25 = 1

69.What is the equation of the straight line passing through the point (2, 3) and making an intercept on the positive y-axis equal to twice its intercept on the positive x-axis?

(a) 2x + y = 5

(b) 2x + y = 7

(d) 2x – y = 1

70.. Let the coordinates of the points A, B, C be (1, 8, 4), (0, - 11, 4) and (2, - 3, 1) respectively. What are the coordinates of the point D which is the foot of the perpendicular from A on BC?

(a) (3, 4, -2)

(b) (4, -2, 5)

(d) (2, 4, 5)

71.What is the equation of the plane passing through the points (- 2, 6, - 6), (- 3, 10, - 9) and (- 5, 0, - 6)?

(a) 2x – y – 2z = 2

(b) 2x + y + 3z = 3

(d) x – y – z = 3

72.A sphere of constant radius r through the origin intersects the coordinate axes in A, B and C. What is the locus of the centroid of the triangle ABC?

(a) x2 + y2 + z2 = r2

(b) x2 + y2 + z2 = 4r2

(d) 3(x2 + y2 + z2) = 2r2

73.. The coordinates of the vertices P, Q and R of a triangle PQR are (1, -1, 1), (3, -2, 2) and (0, 2, 6) respectively. If ∠RQP = θ, then what is ∠PRQ equal to?

(a) 30° + θ

(b) 45° - θ

(d) 90° - θ

74.The perpendiculars that fall from any point or the straight line 2x + 11y = 5 upon the two straight lines 24x + 7y = 20 and 4x - 3y = 2 are

(a) 12 and 4 respectively

(b) 11 and 5 respectively

(d) Not equal to each other

75.The equation of the line, when the portion of it intercepted between the axes is divided by the point (2, 3) in the ratio of 3 : 2, is

(a) Either x + y = 4 or 9x + y = 12

(b) Either x + y = 5 or 4x + 9y = 30

(d) Either x + y = 5 or 9x + 4 y = 30

76.What is the distance between the straight lines 3x + 4y = 9 and 6x + 8y = 15?

(a) 3/2

(b) 3/10

(d) 5

77.What is the equation to the sphere whose centre is at (- 2, 3, 4) and radius is 6 units?

(a) x2 + y2 + z2 + 4x - 6y - 8z = 7

(b) x2 + y2 + z2 + 6x - 4y - 8z = 7

(d) x2 + y2 + z2 + 4x + 6y + 8z = 4

78.. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the function f : R → R+ defined as f(x) = |x + 1|?

(a) f(x2) = [f(x)]2

(b) f(|x|) = |f(x)|

(d) None of the above

79.Suppose f : R → R is defined by f(x) = x2/1 + x2. What is the range of the function?

(a) [10, 1)

(b) [10, 1]

(d) (0, 1)

80.if f(x) = |x| + |x – 1|, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) f(x) is continuous at x = 0 and x = 1

(b) f(x) is continuous at x = 0 but not at x = 1

(d) f(x) is neither continuous at x = 0 nor at x = 1

81.What is the area of the region bounded by the parabolas y2 = 6 (x - 1) and y2 = 3x?

(a) √6/3

(b) 2√6/3

(d) 5√6/3

82.If the area of the trapezium is the maximum possible, then what is a α equal to?

(a) π/6

(b) π/4

(d) 2π/5

83.If the area of the trapezium is maximum, what is the length of the fourth side?

(a) 8cm

(b) 9cm

(d) 12cm

84.What is the maximum area of the trapezium?

(a) 36√3 cm2

(b) 30√3 cm2

(d) 24√3 cm2

85.

(a) eπ + 1/2

(b) eπ - 1/2

(d) eπ + ¼

86.If f(x) = x2 – 9/x2 – 2x – 3, x ≠ 3 is continuous at x = 3, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) f(3) = 0

(b) f(3) = 15

(d) f(3) = 1.5

87.order and degree of the differential equation [1 + (dy/dx)2]3 = p2 [d2y/dx2]2 are respectively

(a) 3 and 2

(b) 2 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

88.If y = cos-1 (2x/1 + x2), then dy/dx is equal to

(a) – 2/1+x2 for all |x|< 1

(b) – 2/1+x2 for all |x|> 1

(d) None of the above

89.The set of all points, where the function f(x) = √1-e-x2 is differentiable, is

(a) (0, ∞)

(b) (- ∞, ∞)

(d) (-1, ∞)

90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:

(a) A B C D

2 3 1 4

(b) A B C D

2 3 4 1

3 2 1 4

(d) A B C D

3 2 4 1

91.If f(x) = x(√x - √x+1), then f(x) is

(a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0

(b) Differentiable at x = 0

(d) None of the above

92.Which one of the following graph represents the function f(x) = x/x, x ≠ 0?

93.A cylindrical jar without a lid has to be constructed using a given surface area of a metal sheet. If the capacity of the jar is to be maximum, then the diameter or the jar must be k times the height or the jar. The value of k is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

94.

(a) π/4

(b) π/2

(d) π/√2

95.Let g be the greatest integer function Then the function f(x) = (g(x))2 - g(x2) is discontinuous at

(a) all integers

(b) all integers except 0 and 1

(d) all integers except 1

96.The differential equation of minimum order by eliminating the arbitrary constants A and C in the equation y = A [sin (x + C) + cos (x + C)] is

(a) y” + (sin x + cos x) y’ = 1

(b) y” = (sin x + cos x)y’

(d) y”+ y = 0

97.If f(x) = 4x + x4/1 + 4x3 and g(x) = 1n (1+x/1-x), then what is the value of f ° g[e - 1/e + 1] equal to?

(a) 2

(b) 1

(d) 1/2

98.

(a) (α – β) (β – γ) (α – γ)

(b) (α – β) (β – γ) (γ – α)

(d) 0

99.

100.

(a) A2 = -2A

(b) A2 = -4A

(d) A2 = 4A

101.Geometrically Re (z2 - i) = 2, where i = √-1 and Re is the real Part, represents

(a)Circle

(b) Ellipse

(d) Parabola

102.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) pa + qb + rc + a + b + c

103.A committee of two persons is selected from two men and two women. The probability that the committee will have exactly one woman is

(a) 1/6

(b) 2/3

(d) 1/2

104.Let a die be loaded in such a way that even faces are twice likely to occur as the odd faces. What is the probability that a prime number will show up when the die is tossed?

(a) 1/3

(b) 2/3

(d) 5/9

105.Consider the following statements

Coefficient of variation depends on the unit of measurement of the variable.
Range is a measure of dispersion.
Mean deviation is least when measured about median.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

106.Given that the arithmetic mean and standard deviation of a sample of 15 observations are 24 and 0 respectively. Then which one of the following is the arithmetic mean or the smallest five observations in the data?

(a) 0

(b) 8

(d) 24

107. Which one of the following can be considered as appropriate pair of values of regression coefficient of y on x and regression coefficient of x on y?

(a) (1, 1)

(b) (-1, 1)

(d) (1/3, 10/3)

(a) 1/5

(b) 1/7

(d) 1/10

109.In a binomial distribution, the mean is 2/3 and the variance is 5/9. What is the probability that X = 2?

(a) 5/36

(b) 25/36

(d) 25/54

110. The probability that a ship safely reaches a port is 1/3. The probability that out of 5 ships, at least 4 ships would arrive safely is

(a) 1/243

(b) 10/243

(d) 13/243

111. What is the probability that at least two persons out of a group of three persons were born in the same month (disregard year)?

(a) 33/144

(b) 17/72

(d) 2/9

112.The following table gives the monthly expenditure of two families:

In constructing a pie diagram to the above data, the radii of the circles are to be chosen by which one of the following ratios?

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 10 : 9

(d) 5 : 49

113.If a variable takes values 0, 1, 2, 3,..., n with frequencies 1, C(n, 1), C(n, 2), C(n, 3), ......, C(n, n) respectively, then the arithmetic mean is

(a) 2n

(b) n + 1

(d) n/2

114.In a multiple-choice test, an examinee either knows the correct answer with probability p, or guesses with probability 1 - p. The probability of answering a question correctly is 1/m, if he or she merely guesses. If the examinee answers a question correctly, the probability that he or she really knows the answer is

(a) mp/1 + mp

(b) mp/1 + (m - 1)p

(d) (m - 1)p/1 + mp

115.If x1 and x2 are positive quantities, then the condition for the difference between the arithmetic mean and the geometric mean to be greater than 1 is

(a) x1 + x2 > 2√x1x2

(b) √x1 + √x2 > √2

(d) x1 + x2 < 2(√x1x2 + 1)

116.Consider the following statements

Variance is unaffected by change of origin and change or scale.
Coefficient of variance is independent or the unit of observations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

117.Five sticks of length 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 feet are given. Three of these sticks are selected at random. What is the probability that the selected sticks can form a triangle?

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.4

(d) 0

118.The coefficient of correlation when coefficients of regression are 0.2 and 1.8 is

(a) 0.36

(b) 0.2

(d) 0.9

120.The slump in business made Mr. Sharma Bankrupt.

a) Rise

b) Disease

c) Fall

d) Theft

121.Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of cleanliness.

a) Foster

b) Aggravate

c) Interrogate

d) Neglect

122.She is a contemplative person.

a) Manipulative

b) Shallow

c) Careless

d) Thoughtful

123.The novel began in an eerie situation.

a) Happy

b) Scary

c) Normal

d) Sad

124.All the characters in the movie are fictitious.

a) Bogus

b) Misleading

c) Imaginary

d) Real

125.Her dedication to fitness was almost fanatical.

a) Violent

b) Overenthusiastic

c) Apathetic

d) Calm

126.They hope to emulate the success of other blue-chip companies.

a) Neglect

b) Instigate

c) Modify

d) Imitate

127.She loved her father’s vivid description of foreign cities.

a) Picturesque

b) Insignificant

c) Weak

d) Fresh

128.He accepted the challenge with an alacrity that surprised me.

a) Liveliness

b) Avidity

c) Lethargy

d) Briskness

129.He looked adorable in his new dress.

a) Charming

b) Despicable

c) Amenable

d) Amicable

130.The revised tax structure is uniform.

a) Broken

b) Varied

c) Static

d) Opposite

131.Tolerance is essential for peace and harmony.

a) Bigotry

b) Resilience

c) Endurance

d) Indifference

132.She is urbane in her manners.

a) Rural

b) Affable

c) Uncivilized

d) Debonair

133.He confessed his feelings for me.

a) Addressed

b) Suppressed

c) Stressed

d) Disclosed

134.She made an exhaustive list of grocery items.

a) Unnecessary

b) Strict

c) Incomplete

d) Intensive

135.There was a marginal increase in the revenues of the company.

a) Minor

b) Significant

c) Negligible

d) Unforeseen

136.S1: It was a dark and stormy night.

S6: In no time it landed on the road.

P: It started raining cats and dogs.

Q: Christopher was returning home.

R: Suddenly he saw a U.F.O. appearing from the clouds above.

S: The whole of Greentown was covered by dark clouds.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) SQPR

c) RQPS

d) PQSR

137.S1: Narada, the celestial sage, was a confirmed bachelor, but one day he saw Princess Shrimati and fell in love with her.

S6: He asked that Narada should appear to have a monkey's face.

P: Both were devotees of Lord Vishnu and both sought his help.

Q: To his dismay another sage, Tumburu, was also smitten by her and wanted to marry her.

R: Tumburu, not knowing that his rival had already approached Vishnu, made a similar request.

S: Narada asked that Tumburu's face should change into a bear's at the Swayamvar at which the princess would select her husband.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QPRS

b) SQRP

c) PQRS

d) QPSR

138.S1: The ambassador of Nippon presented a beautiful cat to the Emperor of China.

S6: At the end of this period they were summoned to the palace again, and asked for their suggestions.

P: He called his ministers, the seven wisest men in the empire, and commanded them to find a suitable name for his pet within seven days.

Q: Eventually the emperor decided that the cat should have a name.

R: People kept asking for the cat’s name and were surprised when told that it had none.

S: The emperor became fond of the animal and took it with him wherever he went.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PQRS

c) SRQP

d) SRPQ

139.S1: A valet was riding behind his master, the aristocratic Chen Yu.

S6: "That's because you've not fed it!" said Chen Yu, angrily, and gave the lad such a blow on his head that it nearly unhorsed him.

P: Chen Yu turned round and when he saw his valet lagging far behind, yelled at him to ride faster.

Q: "Stay right behind me!" roared Chen Yu.

R: With great effort, the valet caught up with his master.

S: "My horse is old, master," said the valet. "It cannot keep up with yours."

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PRQS

c) PRSQ

d) PQRS

140.S1: In a shop at the Palais-Royal they found a string of diamonds which seemed to them exactly like the one they were looking for.

S6: Loisel possessed eighteen thousand francs left to him by his father and intended to borrow the rest.

P: They were allowed to have it for thirty-six thousand.

Q: They begged the jeweler not to sell it for three days.

R: And they arranged matters on the understanding that it would be taken back for thirty-four thousand francs, if the first one were found before the end of February.

S: It was worth forty thousand francs.

The proper sequence should be:

a) SPRQ

b) SQPR

c) SRQP

d) SPQR

141.S1: So far, the southwest monsoon conditions remain favourable – rainfall at 4% below the long term average, and reasonably well-distributed.

S6: In items like arhar (tur) and urad, inflation was already at 23% in May (latest data available at the disaggregate level), and in June it is likely to be even higher.

P: And, the surge in pulses inflation invites concern.

Q: But rains have weakened compared to June.

R: Also, sowing data looks healthy – area sown under kharif crop as on July 10 was 61.8% higher than last year.

S: In the year so far (January to June 2015), pulses inflation has been 13.8% compared to just 4.7% in the same period of 2014.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RQSP

b) RQPS

c) RPQS

d) RSPQ

142.S1: The delivery of health care services—from primary care to secondary and tertiary levels of care—is the most visible part of any health care system, both to users and the general public.

S6: This could be when practitioner and patient communicate over the phone, video conferencing, the internet, email, text messages, or any other form of non-face-to-face communication.

P: The place of delivery may be in the home, the community, the workplace, or in health facilities.

Q: There are many ways of providing health care in the modern world.

R: This is what occurs in general medicine in most countries. However, with modern telecommunications technology, in absentia health care is becoming more common.

S: The most common way is face-to-face delivery, where care provider and patient see each other 'in the flesh'.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QSRP

b) QSPR

c) QPSR

d) QPRS

143.S1: In contrast to last year, the initial outlook for the southwest monsoon looks hardly promising.

S6: However, the initial forecast made in April cannot be the basis for arriving at any firm conclusions; at best, it may serve as a pointer.

P: The forecast probability of both deficient and below-normal categories is double the climatological probability, which is based on how the monsoon fared in previous years.

Q: While the chances of excess rainfall occurring are non-existent, initial indications are that the monsoon this year will be subnormal or deficient.

R: According to the first-stage forecast issued by the India Meteorological Department, the southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall is likely to be 93 per cent of the long-period average with a margin of error of 5 per cent.

S: For the June-September season, both the deficient (less than 90 per cent of long-period average, or LPA) and below-normal (between 90 and 96 per cent of the long-period average) categories have a nearly equal probability of 33 and 35 per cent respectively.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RSPQ

b) RSQP

c) RQPS

d) RQSP

144.S1: Baltimore, a city that has a high concentration of African-Americans relative to other parts of the country, suffers from specific issues such as urban poverty owing to long-term deindustrialization and unemployment.

S6: And until the economic system evolves a way of addressing inner-city poverty, such incidents seem destined to recur.

P: It has very high crime rates with the African-American youth of the inner cities in particular prone to be blamed for them even as they face difficult living conditions.

Q: Unless the U.S. rethinks its strategies on crime and punishment with respect to the black community — incarceration rates among African-Americans continue to remain unacceptably high.

R: Law enforcement in the city has been characterized by police brutality, and despite a better racial balance than elsewhere in the country in the city’s administration there is a severe lack of confidence in the system among residents.

S: The abysmal state of affairs, which was depicted realistically by the popular TV series The Wire, extends to other inner cities as well.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) PRSQ

c) PRQS

d) PSQR

145.S1: The Indian Pharmaceuticals market size is expected to grow to US$ 85 billion by 2020.

S6: In addition, the thrust on rural health programmes, life saving drugs and preventive vaccines also augurs well for the pharma companies.

P: Going forward, better growth in domestic sales will depend on the ability of companies to align their product portfolio towards chronic therapies for diseases such as such as cardiovascular, anti-diabetes, anti-depressants and anti-cancers are on the rise.

Q: Moreover, the government has been taking several cost effective measures in order to bring down healthcare expenses.

R: The growth in Indian domestic market will be on back of increasing consumer spending, rapid urbanisation, raising healthcare insurance, and so on.

S: Thus, governments are focusing on speedy introduction of generic drugs into the market.

The proper sequence should be:

a) RQSP

b) RSPQ

c) RPQS

d) RQPS

146.S1: For a country on the growth trajectory, the public-private-partnership (PPP) model has worked quite well.

S6: This was precisely the challenge that the eight-member Kelkar Committee, headed by former finance secretary Vijay Kelkar, tried to address.

P: Consider this: at the end of December 2014, the value of all projects that have been stalled — mostly in the infrastructure sector — stood at an eye-popping `8.8 lakh crore (or 7 per cent of GDP) according to the Economic Survey-2014.

Q: But the model also revealed weaknesses.

R: If you add the cost and time overruns, it translates into another few thousand crores.

S: So much so that India has emerged as the world’s largest PPP market with more than 900 projects in various stages of development.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS

b) SQPR

c) RQPS

d) PQSR

147.S1: While the survey’s findings are broadly valid, it has to be seen in the larger context of general literacy in India — 86 per cent in urban areas and 71 in rural areas — which needs to be factored in.

S6: In fact, they are money-wise and know well which side of their bread is buttered.

P: Even today, for a majority of Indians, venturing into complex modern financial products is tantamount to speculation, which they shun.

Q: Add to that a culture unique to India and the Asian region of saving and a general aversion to risk which is almost part of the DNA of the population.

R: So, to say that a majority of Indians are financially illiterate is only stating part of the truth.

S: For them, the safest bet on saving — most often for financing their children’s higher education and weddings — is gold, which they understand very well.

The proper sequence should be:

a) QPRS

b) SQRP

c) PQRS

d) QPSR

148.S1: With over 18 crore vehicles, India’s air pollution levels are rising alarmingly.

S6: Vehicle owners, on their part, should make an effort to maintain proper speed, which ensures limited pollution.

P: Strict enforcement of simple measures like switching off engines while waiting at signals in traffic-prone zones and during traffic jams, will not only help reduce both noise and air pollution to some extent, but also inculcate vehicular-discipline among drivers.

Q: A think-tank must be set up to strengthen our emission testing standards.

R: Right now, just 13 cities have Euro-4 norms.

S: The government, on a priority basis, must advance our fuel emission norms on a par with developed nations, which are currently running on Euro-6.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PQRS

c) SRQP

d) SRPQ

149.. S1: I had heard a great deal about Miss Barnett’s school.

S6: He seemed to be describing me to her. Then they passed on.

P: But not till last week did the chance come to visit it.

Q: Her eyes were covered with a bandage and she was being led carefully between the flower-beds by a little boy who was about four years younger.

R: When I arrived there was no one in sight but a girl of about twelve.

S: She stopped and it looked like she asked him who had come.

The proper sequence should be:

a) PQSR

b) PRQS

c) PRSQ

d) PQRS

150.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a) She has been working on

b) the issue from a long time

c)but is still not able to solve it.

d)No error

151.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors

a)A shudder ran to Anjali’s spine

b)when she recalled the accident

c)in which she was luckily saved

d)No error

152.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)Supposing if the Directors

b)doesn’t arrive in time for the Board Meeting,

c)what will you do?

d)No error

153.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)Whatever assignment

b)that which you take,

c)put your best efforts in it

d)No error

154.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)And though one did not

b)quite believe her plea, one saw no harm

c)in granting her permission

d)No error

155.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)If the work would have been

b)properly assigned, it would have taken

c)much less time in completion.

d)No error

156.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)The money lender

b)handed over a hundred

c)) rupees note to the borrower

d)No error

157.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)The furious woman walked hurriedly

b)into the congested room

c)and shouted loud at the visitors.

d)No error (d)

158.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)Mathematics and Accountancy

b)are more easier than

c)History and Geography

d)No error

159.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)The bike flew off the road

b)and fell into the valley

c)because Amit was driving faster

d)No error

160.In each of the following questions there are three parts (a), (b), and (c), among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark (d) if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

a)She can play

b)as good as she can write

c)with her left hand

d)No error

161.Before the second world war the British:

On 7 to 8 August 1942, the All India Congress Committee met in Bombay and ratified the 'Quit India' resolution. Gandhi called for 'Do or Die'. The next day, on 9 August 1942, Gandhi, members of the Congress Working Committee and other Congress leaders were arrested by the British Government under the Defence of India Rules. The Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908. The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The arrest of Gandhi and the Congress leaders led to mass demonstrations throughout India. Thousands were killed and injured in the wake of the 'Quit India' movement. Strikes were called in many places. The British swiftly suppressed many of these demonstrations by mass detentions; more than 100,000 people were imprisoned. The 'Quit India' movement, more than anything, united the Indian people against British rule. Although most demonstrations had been suppressed by 1944, upon his release in 1944 Gandhi continued his resistance and went on a 21-day fast. By the end of the Second World War, Britain's place in the world had changed dramatically and the demand for independence could no longer be ignored.

a) Were considering giving independence to India

b) Were considering expanding their power in India

c) Gave no thought to given freedom to India

d) Were preparing for the war by using Indian men as soldiers

162.What does the word ‘ratified’ mean in the passage?

a) To confirm by expressing disapproval.

b) To confirm by expressing consent.

c) To confirm by expressing dissent.

d) To confirm by expressing suspicion.

163.The ratification of Quit India Movement by Congress led to:

a) Mass demonstrations throughout the country

b) Strikes at several places

c) Arrest of working committee and other leaders of Congress

d) Killing of thousands of Indians

164.In the context of passage which of the following statement is true:

Most of the demonstrations of Quit India movement were suppressed by 1944.
Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress’ were declared unlawful associations under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules

a) I only

b) II only

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

165.Why people of Northern Europe think that global warming might not be such a bad thing?

There are still a few people in northern Europe who think that global warming might not be such a bad thing. In Britain, where summer can sometimes seem to last little more than a few weeks, many would welcome the idea of it getting a bit hotter. Unfortunately things are not so simple. Global warming doesn't just mean that the world will slowly get warmer. Paradoxically, it could cause certain areas to get colder - a lot colder. The latest predictions are that northern Europe could even be plunged into an ice age. While areas of south-eastern Europe, such as Greece, would continue to get hotter and drier, Britain could find itself, in the winter months at least, surrounded by sea ice. The reason for this concerns the Greenland ice sheet. This is one of the biggest expanses of ice in the world - around 1,500km long and 600km wide. It is so big that if it all melted sea levels would rise by 7 meters. Due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide from the combustion of fossil fuels, this ice sheet is melting at an alarming rate.

a) It will make the weather of Northern Europe colder.

b) It will make the weather of Northern Europe warmer.

c) It will make whole planet colder.

d) It will make whole Europe colder.

166.What contradictory opinion has been quoted by the author in the context of global warming?

a) Northern Europe won’t get affected because of global warming.

b) Northern Europe will become warmer as a result of global warming.

c) Global warming could make the planet hotter.

d) Global warming could cause certain areas to get colder.

167.What does the author mean by the term ‘biggest expanses’ in the passage?

a) The wide continuous area of Britain.

b) The wide continuous area of Northern Europe.

c) The wide continuous area of Greenland Ice Sheet.

d) The wide continuous area of Southern Europe.

168.According to the passage, why the Greenland ice sheet is melting?

a) The wide continuous area of Southern Europe.

b) Due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases.

c) Due to decrease in combustion of fossil fuels.

dd) Due to decrease in emissions of greenhouse gases.

169.Which of the following statement is incorrect according to the passage?

a) The Greenland Ice sheet is melting at an alarming rate due to rising emissions of greenhouse gases.

b) Global warming can make colder place much colder leading them to the era of an ice age.

c) The Greenland Ice sheet is around 1,500km wide and 600km long.

d) If Greenland Ice sheet gets melt, the sea level would rise by 7 meters.

170.The filament of a light bulb is made up of:

a) Platinum

b) Tantalum

c) Tungsten

d) Antimony

171.Which of the following is false?

Sound waves are ____________ waves.

a) Pressure

b) Longitudinal

c) Electromagnetic

d) Mechanical

172.Which of the following coloured light has the lowest frequency?

a) Green

b) Blue

c) Red

d) Violet

173.The period of artificial geostationary satellite is:

a) 8 hours

b) 12 hours

c) 24 hours

d) 46 hours

174.The value of universal gravitational constant G is:

a) 9.8 m/s2

b) 6.673×10-11 N m2 kg-2

c) 6.371 x 106 m

d) 1.738 x 10 6 m

175.What is the unit of the magnitude of the weight?

a) Distance (meter)

b) Mass (grams)

c) Force (Newton)

d) None of the above

176.What is the value of Pi?

a) 3.14159

b) 3.14358

c) 3.14258

d) 3.14289

177.Which of the following is the best electricity conductor?

a) Copper

b) Aluminium

c) Iron

d) Silver

178.Small liquid drops are spherical in shape because

a) of adhesion

b) of gravitational force

c) of the atmospheric pressure from all the sides on the top

d) the liquid tends to have the minimum surface area are due to surface tension

179.The Chandershekhar Limit is related to which of the following?

a) Stars

b) Black holes

c) Both of these

d) None of these

180.A Light Year is a measure of

a) Light intensity

b) Time

c) Distance

d) None of the Above

181.In the Solar System, asteroids circle between these two planets.

a) Venus and Mars

b) Mars and Earth

c) Mars and Jupiter

d) Jupiter and Saturn

182.Identify the pair that is correctly matched?

a) Madam Curie: X – ray

b) Albert Einstein: Photoelectric effect

c) Linus Pauling: Electron

d) C V Raman: Stark effect

183.Refraction, Reflection, Dispersion and Diffraction are associated with

a) Light

b) Sound

c) Magnetism

d) None of the Above

184.The minimum possible temperature beyond which matter cannot be cooled is in degree Centigrades is:

a) 95.50

b) 100

c) 273.15

d) 473.50

185.. Who among the following is credited for discovering the principles underlying electromagnetic induction?

a) Michael Faraday

b) Volta

c) Coulomb

d) Gauss

186.Which of the following statement is correct about Pi?

a) It is non-repeating decimal value

b) It is non terminating decimal value

c) It is repeating and terminating decimal value

d) It is non-repeating, non-terminating decimal value

187.It is on this principle, the quartz clock works.

a) Piezo-electric effect

b) Gauss effect

c) Relativistic effect

d) Mass defect

188.Who has calculated the circumference of the earth and considered the value of Pi = 22/7?

a) Archimedes

b) John Machin's

c) Aryabhatta

d) None of the above

189.Cryogenic engines find applications in:

(a) sub-marine propulsion

(b) frost-free refrigerators

(d) researches in superconductivity

190.The clouds float in the atmosphere because of low:

(a) temperature

(b) velocity

(d) density

191.Pi consists of how many digits?

a) 9 digits

b) 10 digits

c) 12 digits

d) Infinite

192.Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.

Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

In context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

193.An air bubble in water will act like a:

(a) convex mirror

(b) convex lens

(d) cancave lens

194.When a mirror is rotated by an angle 0, the reflected ray will rotate by:

(a) 0°

(b) 0/2

(d) 20

195.The mean and standard deviation of a binomial distribution are 12 and 2 respectively. What is the number of trials?

A. 2

B. 12

C. 18

D. 24

196.A sample of 5 observations has mean 32 and median 33.Later it is found that an observation was recorded incorrectly as 40 instead of 35. If we correct the data, then which one of the following is correct?

A. The mean and median remain the same

B. The median remains the same but the mean will decrease

C. The mean and median both will decrease

D. The mean remains the same but median will decrease

198.For given statistical data, the graphs for less than ogive and more than ogive are drawn. If the point at which the two curves intersect is P, then abscissa of point P gives the value of which one of the following measures of central tendency?

A. Median

B. Mean

C. Mode

D. Geometric mean

199.Data can be represented in which of the following forms?

1) Textual form
2) Tabular form
3) Graphical form
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

200.If the data are moderately non-symmetrical, then which one of the following empirical relationships is correct?

A. 2 × Standard deviation = 5 × Mean deviation

B. 5 × Standard deviation = 2 ×Mean deviation

C. 4 × Standard deviation = 5 ×Mean deviation

D. 5 × Standard deviation = 4 ×Mean deviation

201. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Range is not a good measure of dispersion.
Statement 2: Range is highly affected by the existence of extreme values.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1

C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct

D. Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is not correct

202.In an examination, 40% of candidates got second class. When the date are represented by a pie chart, what is the angle corresponding to second class?

A. 40Â

B. 90Â

C. 144Â

D. 320Â

203.The mean weight of 150 students in a certain class is 60 kg. The mean weight of boys in the class is 70 kg and that of girls is 55 kg. What is the number of boys in the class?

A. 50

B. 55

C. 60

D. 100

204.The mean of a group of 100 observations was found to be 20.Later it was found that four observations were incorrect, which were recorded as 21, 21, 18 and 20. What is the mean if the incorrect observations are omitted?

A. 18

B. 20

C. 21

D. 22

205.The variance of 20 observations is 5. If each observation is multiplied by 3, then what is the new variance of the resulting observations?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 45

206.Under which one of the following conditions are the lines x = ay + b; z = cy + d and x = ey + f; z = gy + h perpendicular?

A. ae + cg – 1 = 0

B. ae + bf – 1 = 0

C. ae + cg + 1 = 0

D. ag + ce + 1 = 0

207.The points P(3, 2, 4), Q(4, 5, 2), R(5, 8, 0) and S(2, -1, 6) are

A. vertices of a rhombus which is not a square

B. non-coplanar

C. collinear

D. coplanar but not collinear

208.ABCD is a quadrilateral whose diagonals are AC and BD . Which one of the following is correct?

209.

210.

211.

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

212.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

213.Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above
function?

A. It is discontinuous at x = -2 but continuous at every other point.

B. It is continuous only the interval (-3, -2).

C. It is discontinuous at x = 0 but continuous at every other point.

D. It is discontinuous at every point.

214.The sum of all the two-digit odd numbers is

A. 2475

B. 2530

C. 4905

D. 5049

215.The number of different words (eight-letter words) ending and beginning with a consonant which can be made out of the letters of the word ‘EQUATION’ is

A. 5200

B. 4320

C. 3000

D. 2160

216.The value of [C(8,1)+C(8,2)+C(8,3)+C(8,4)+..........+C(8,7)+C(8,8)] is

A. 254

B. 255

C. 256

D. 257

217.If the graph of a quadratic polynomial lies entirely above x-axis, then which one of the following is correct?

A. Both the roots are real

B. One root is real and the other is complex

C. Both the roots are complex

D. Cannot say

218.If the sum of m terms of an AP is n and the sum of n terms is m, then the sum of (m + n) terms is

A. mn

B. m + n

C. 2(m + n)

D. -(m + n)

219.Which of the following statement is true about ionic compounds?

Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.
Ionic compounds are not soluble in water.
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids.

Correct options are:

a) Both 1 and 3

b) Both 1 and 2

c) Both 2 and 3

d) All the three

220.The solution of one of the following compounds will conduct electricity. This compound is:

a) CCl4

b) HCl

c) CaCl2

d) CH3Cl

221.What is an ionic bond?

a) Ionic bond is formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms.

b) It is a bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

c) Both A and B are correct

d) None of the above

222.What is C12H12O11 also known as:

a) Sand

b) Sugar

c) Salt

d) Clay

223.The only non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:

a) Mercury

b) Bromine

c) Chlorine

d) Gallium

224.Choose the one which is different or odd from the following.

a) Aluminum

b) Iron

c) Copper

d) Brass

225.Name the ions present in Sodium Oxide compound?

a) Sodium ions

b) Oxide ions

c) Both A and B

d) Neither A nor B

226.Which of the following are electrovalent compounds?

a) Copper sulphate

b) Calcium nitrate

c) Magnesium oxide

d) All of the above

227.What is the electronic configuration of calcium ion (Ca2+):

a) 2,8

b) 2,8,2

c) 2,8,4

d) 2,8,8

228.Name the salt when on dissolving in water give an acidic solution?

a) Potassium Chloride

b) Ammonium Chloride

c) Sodium Carbonate

d) Sodium Acetate

229.Bleaching powder is formed by treating chlorine with.......

a) Calcium Hydroxide

b) Potassium Hydrogen carbonate

c) Magnesium Hydroxide

d) None of the above

230.Name the salt whose aqueous solution will turn blue litmus to red?

a) Sodium Acetate

b) Potassium Sulphate

c) Potassium Carbonate

d) Ammonium Sulphate

231.Name an acid which contains both oxygen and hydrogen?

a) Oxy acid

b) Hydra acid

c) Dilute acid

d) Concentrated acid

232.What is the chemical name of Baking Soda?

a) Potassium Carbonate

b) Potassium Hydrogen Carbonate

c) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate

d) Sodium Carbonate

233.What is battery acid?

a) It is sulphuric acid diluted with water.

b) It is carboxylic acid mixed with water.

c) It is concentrated hydrochloric acid.

d) It is concentrated sulphuric acid.

234.In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach

b) Food Pipe

c) Mouth

d) Small Intestine

235.Which of the following organism have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium

b) Plasmodium

c) Paramecium

d) Parrot

236.Name the first enzyme that mix with food in the digestive tract?

a) Pepsin

b) Trypsin

c) Amylase

d) None of the above

237.Which of the following in biology is the energy currency of cells?

a) PDP

b) DTP

c) ATP

d) ADP

238.Which of the following was the first antibiotic discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928?

a) Penicillin

b) Prontosil

c) Streptomycin

d) Tetracycline

239.In 1981, ISRO launched India’s first geostationary satellite called -

a) Aryabhata

b) APPLE

c) Bhaskara II

d) INSAT lB

240.In the stem of a plant respiration and breathing takes place through:

a) Lenticels

b) Stomata

c) Root hair

d) Air tubes

241.Name the blood vessel which carries blood back to the heart?

a) Vein

b) Artery

c) Capillaries

d) Platelet

242.After wound or cut in a body blood coagulates through:

a) WBC

b) RBC

c) Platelets

d) Plasma

243.Consider the following

It was the first India’s Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
It was protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct about Champaran Satyagraha?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

244.When did M. K. Gandhi arrive in Champaran?

a) April, 1915

b) April, 1916

c) April, 1917

d) April, 1918

245.Which of the following statement is not correct about 'Bombay Plan'?

a) The Bombay Plan is also called the 'Tata Bidla Plan'

b) It was started in 1944

c) Its draft was prepared by the John Mathai

d) There were 10 members in this plan

246.Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) There is no constitutional provision in India about the Planning Commission

b) Planning commission was established in January 1951

c) National Development Council was established in August 1952

d) Jawaharlal Nehru, was the first chairman of the Planning Commission

247.Who started the 'Gandhian Plan'?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) M.N. Roy

d) None of the above

248.Who was the revenue collector during Vedic period?

a) Senani

b) Jivagribha

c) Bhagadugha

d) Madhyamasi

249.Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The first five year plan was launched from 1st April, 1951

b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India

c) The National Development Council used to give final approval to the Five Year Plan

d) The first five year plan was based on the Harrod- Domar model

250.What was the ancient name of Shivalik Hills?

a) Manak Parbat

b) Mahabharata Hills

c) Shiva Parvat

d) None of the above

251.Who among the following was the founder of Rashtrakutas?

a) Dantidurga

b) Yashovarman

c) Mihir Bhoja

d) Vakpatiraja

252.Who among the following ruling dynasty of early Medieval India called themselves descendants of Satyaki?

a) Pala

b) Rashtrakutas

c) Chola

d) Vijayanagara

253.The process of Constitutional amendment in India is taken from........?

a) America

b) Japan

c) South Africa

d) Canada

254.Match the following:-

Code:

A B C D

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 3 4 2 1

d) 1 4 3 2

255.Consider the following

The tripartite struggle was between the Pratiharas, Palas and Rashtrakuta.
Fight was to acquire supremacy over Kanauj, a symbol of prestige in Indian politics.

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct about tripartite struggle of early medieval India?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

256.Which of the following is not ruling class of Kashmir?

a) Karkota

b) Utpala

c) Loharas

d) Senas

257.Which one of was the significant feature of the Quit India Movement?

(a) Women did not play an important role in the movement

(b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement

(d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India

258.Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement

(b) It was not supported by the Congress

(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

259.Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India?

(a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire

(b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues

(d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities

260.Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) H. H. Risley

(d) Sir Lancelot Hare

261.Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Kalyanji Mehta

262.Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam?

(a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth

(b) He believed in universal education

(d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base

263.Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): All rivers originating from the Himalayas are perennial.

Reason (R): Himalayas receive much of their precipitation from South-Western monsoon.

Code:

a) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d) (A) is the false, but (R) is true.

264.Which of the following term is correctly used for the flat plain along the sub-Himalayan region in North India?

a) Tarai

b) Doon

c) Khadar

d) Bhabar

265.Shivalik Hills are part of which of the following?

a) Aravali

b) Western Ghats

c) Himalaya

d) Satpura

266.The Nanda Devi is located in which of the following state?

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Jammu & Kashmir

c) Uttarakhand

d) Uttar Pradesh

267.The Shivalik range was formed in which of the following period?

a) Eozoic

b) Pliocene

c) Mesozoic

d) Cenozoic

268.Which one of the only regions of the Shivaliks to preserve its flora and fauna?

a) Doon

b) Duar

c) National Park

d) Patli Dun

269.Which of the following is not part of Himalayan Ranges?

a) Pir Panjal Range (part of middle Himalayas)

b) DhaulaDhar Range

c) Zaskar Range

d) Aravalli Range

270.Which of the following is not the loftiest mountain peak of the Himalayas Mountain?

a) Kula Kangri

b) Chomolhari

c) Mt. Abu

d) Manaslu

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