NEET-2

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1. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in

(1) Pteridophytes

(2) Gymnosperms

(3) Liverworts

(4) Mosses

2. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

(1) before entry of sperm into ovum

(2) simultaneously with first cleavage

(3) after entry of sperm but before fertilization

(4) after fertilization

3. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with

(1) Methanol at room temperature

(2) Chilled chloroform

(3) Isopropanol

(4) Chilled ethanol

4. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to

(1) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls

(2) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes

(3) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity

(4) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

5. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called

(1) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species

(2) for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer

(3) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global warming

(4) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits

6. Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

7. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

(1) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane

(2) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger

(3) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane

(4) Binding to DNA and forming a genehormone complex

8. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :

(1) DNA polymorphism

(2) Novel DNA sequences

(3) Genes expressed as RNA

(4) Polypeptide expression

9. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?

(1) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid

(2) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid

(3) Auxin and Ethylene

(4) Gibberellin and Cytokinin

10. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

(1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest

(2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

(3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland

(4) Pyramid of energy

11. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?

(1) Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(2) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

(3) Mitochondria and Lysosomes

(4) Chloroplast and Vacuoles

12. Which of the following taxonomic categories includes all the other categories?

1) Order

2) Kingdom

3) Species

4) Family

13. Match the following hormones with the respective disease

(a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

14. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as?

(1) Hilum

(2) Tegmen

(3) Chalaza

(4) Perisperm

15. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because :

(1) it has very hard seed coat.

(2) its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination.

(3) its embryo is immature.

(4) it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.

16. Muscles which regulate the diameter of pupil are

1) Ectodermal striated

2) Mesodermal striated

3) Ectodermal unstriated

4) Mesodermal unstriat

17. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs

(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small
intestine
(d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

18. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following

(1) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll

(2) Tyloses in vessels

(3) Closure of stomata

(4) Flaccidity of bulliform cells

19. Consider the following statements :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called
prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(2) (A) is false but (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) (A) is true but (B) is false.

20. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is

(1) 0.07

(2) 0.09

(3) 0.9

(4) 0.7

21. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.

(2) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

(3) Viroids lack a protein coat.

(4) Viruses are obligate parasites.

22. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

(1) Companion cells only

(2) Both sieve tubes and companion cells

(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(4) Sieve tubes only

23. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?

5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3'

(1) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively

(2) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

(3) Insertion of G at 5th position

(4) Deletion of G from 5th position

24. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes.

(1) Oxyntic Cells

(2) Duodenal Cells

(3) Chief Cells

(4) Goblet Cells

25. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

(1) Shoot apex

(2) Leaves

(3) Lateral buds

(4) Pulvinus

26. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

(1) 100 beats per minute

(2) 125 beats per minute

(3) 50 beats per minute

(4) 75 beats per minute

27. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?

(1) 2200 mL

(2) 2700 mL

(3) 1500 mL

(4) 1700 mL

28. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is

(1) Parietal

(2) Free central

(3) Basal

(4) Axile

29. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?

(1) Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean

(2) Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth's surface

(3) Shoot the waste into space

(4) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover

30. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.

(2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.

(3) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies

(4) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.

31. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?

(1) Industrial oven

(2) Bioreactor

(3) BOD incubator

(4) Sludge digester

32. Match the following organisms with the products they produce

(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd
cerevisiae
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

(3) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)

33. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity

(2) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes

(3) Inbreeding increases homozygosity

(4) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.

34. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?

(1) Inflammatory immune response

(2) Cell-mediated immune response

(3) Auto-immune response

(4) Humoral immune response

35. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?

(1) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.

(2) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.

(3) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year

(4) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue - early and late wood respectively.

36. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(1) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector

(2) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice

(3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil

(4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

37. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?

(1) Edward syndrome

(2) Down's syndrome

(3) Turner's syndrome

(4) Klinefelter's syndrome

38. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?

(1) Central cell develops into endosperm

(2) Ovules develop into embryo sac

(3) Ovary develops into fruit

(4) Zygote develops into embryo

39. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction?

(1) Economic exploitation

(2) Alien species invasion

(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(4) Drought and floods

40. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

(1) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.

(2) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.

(3) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency contraceptives.

(4) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.

41. Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics

Consider following features
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body

(1) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

(3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca

42. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?

(1) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex

(2) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration

(3) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone

(4) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.

43. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics :

(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

44. Xylem translocates

(1) Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only

(2) Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones

(3) Water only

(4) Water and mineral salts only

45. What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

(1) Downward

(2) Bi-directional

(3) Non-multidirectional

(4) Upward

46. Which of the following is not related to Rock weed

1) It is a Rhodophyceae member

2) It contains chl.a and chl.c

3) Diplontic life cycle is present

4) Two unequal lateral flagella are present

47. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as

(1) q-arm and p-arm respectively

(2) m-arm and n-arm respectively

(3) s-arm and l-arm respectively

(4) p-arm and q-arm respectively

48. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

(1) Anabaena

(2) Lactobacillus

(3) Trichoderma

(4) Chlorella

49. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

(1) GLUT III

(2) GLUT IV

(3) GLUT I

(4) GLUT II

50. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

(1) Guanine and cytosine

(2) Cytosine and thymine

(3) Adenine and thymine

(4) Adenine and guanine

51. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by

(1) glycosylation of morphine

(2) nitration of morphine

(3) methylation of morphine

(4) acetylation of morphine

52. Select the correct option.

(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.

(2) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.

(4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

53. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

(1) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)

(2) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)

(3) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)

(4) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)

54. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(1) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.

(2) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

(3) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

(4) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.

55. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are

(1) small and directional

(2) small and directionless

(3) random and directional

(4) random and directionless

56. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement

(1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.

(2) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

(3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.

(4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.

57. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Medulla oblongata

(3) Cerebrum

(4) Hypothalamus

58. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis
may result in :
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production

(1) (c) and (d) are correct

(2) (a) and (d) are correct

(3) (a) and (b) are correct

(4) (b) and (c) are correct

59. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?

(1) Alkaline pH of gut

(2) Acidic pH of stomach

(3) Body temperature

(4) Moist surface of midgut

60. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?

(1) Gothenburg Protocol

(2) Geneva Protocol

(3) Montreal Protocol

(4) Kyoto Protocol

61. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Chlamydiasis

(3) Gonorrhoea

(4) Genital warts

62. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out

(1) Nitrification

(2) Denitrification

(3) Nitrogen fixation

(4) Chemoautotrophic fixation

63. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F 1 generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F 2 generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Ratio of F2 is 1/4 (Red) : 2/4 (Pink) : 1/4 (White)

(2) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment

(3) This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.

(4) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.

64. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

(1) Disruptive Selection

(2) Cyclical Selection

(3) Directional Selection

(4) Stabilizing Selection

65. Concanavalin A is

(1) a lectin

(2) a pigment

(3) an alkaloid

(4) an essential oil

66. Select the correct option.

Match the Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles
(c) T - wave (iii)Coronary ischemia
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of size of T-wave atria
(v) Repolarisation of atria

Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

67. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :

(a) i gene (i) ß-galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

68. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures

(2) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

(3) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes

(4) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH

69. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as

(1) Syngamy

(2) Parthenogenesis

(3) Autogamy

(4) Parthenocarpy

70. Match Column - I with Column - II

Column - I Column - II
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
(c) Lichens (iii)Living on living plants or animals
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

71. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(1) Streptokinase

(2) Lipases

(3) Cyclosporin A

(4) Statin

72. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology?

(1) Genetic code is nearly universal

(2) Genetic code is specific

(3) Genetic code is not ambiguous

(4) Genetic code is redundant

73. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in

(1) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct

(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

(3) Bile duct and Bronchioles

(4) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct

74. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by

(1) Enolase

(2) Phosphofructokinase

(3) Aldolas

(4) Hexokinase

75. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(1) Botanical Garden

(2) Sacred Grove

(3) Biosphere Reserve

(4) Wildlife Sanctuary

76. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by

(1) Schleiden

(2) Aristotle

(3) Rudolf Virchow

(4) Theodor Schwann

77. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.

(1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

(2) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

(3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids

(4) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis

78. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

(1) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test

(2) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

(3) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test

(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test

79. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg

(2) Human males have one of their sexchromosome much shorter than the other

(3) Male fruit fly is heterogametic

(4) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome

80. The following are associated with nerve fibres in Peripheral Nervous System

A) Axolemma

B) Neurilemma

C) Endoneurium

D) Myelin sheath

81. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains

(1) Macrophages

(2) Immunoglobulin A

(3) Natural killer cells

(4) Monocytes

82. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?

(1) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.

(2) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.

(3) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid.

(4) All fuse with the egg.

83. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

(1) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.

(2) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.

(3) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.

(4) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.

84. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(1) Progestasert, LNG-20

(2) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

(3) Vaults, LNG-20

(4) Multiload 375, Progestasert

85. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Mangifera Indica

(3) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

(4) Mangifera indica Linn.

86. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?

(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

(2) Carbon dioxide and Methane

(3) Ozone and Ammonia

(4) Oxygen and Nitrogen

87. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by :

(1) Alfred Sturtevant

(2) Sutton Boveri

(3) T.H. Morgan

(4) Gregor J. Mendel

88. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised.

(2) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion the eye.

(3) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious covering of the eye-ball.

(4) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.

89. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Botulism

(3) Tetany

(4) Muscular dystrophy

90. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for

(1) Construction of roads

(2) Making tubes and pipes

(3) Making plastic sacks

(4) Use as a fertilizer

91. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is :

(1) 4/9

(2) 5/9

(3) 1/9

(4) 8/9

92. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in ydirection where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is

(1) 25 J

(2) 20 J

(3) 30 J

(4) 5 J

93. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

(1) Isobaric

(2) Isochoric

(3) Isothermal

(4) Adiabatic

94. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?

(1) Electromagnet

(2) Electric heater

(3) Induction furnace

(4) Magnetic braking in train

95. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth ?

(1) 250 N

(2) 100 N

(3) 150 N

(4) 200 N

96. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:

(1) the mass is at the lowest point

(2) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical

(3) the mass is at the highest point

(4) the wire is horizontal

97. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

(1) Decrease in its pressure

(2) Decrease in intermolecular distance

(3) Increase in its mass

(4) Increase in its kinetic energy

98. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1) Green

(2) Violet

(3) Red

(4) Blue

99. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?

(1) Equal to angle of incidence

(2) 90°

(3) 180°

(4) 0°

100. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

(1) 2 J

(2) 1 J

(3) 3 J

(4) 30 kJ

101. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges becomes :

(1) 16F/9

(2) 4F/3

(3) F

(4) 9F/16

102. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.

(1) An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun

(2) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion refraction and reflection of sunlight

(3) When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed

(4) The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow

103. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is

(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)

(1) 25 J

(2) 30 J

(3) –30 J

(4) 5 kJ

104. The biodegradable polymer is:

(1) Nylon-6

2) Buna-S

(3) Nylon-6,6

(4) Nylon-2-Nylon 6

105. Which of the following is the correct option?

Match the following :
(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(c) Contact process (iii)Ammonia
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

106.Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor. M is :

(1) Ca

(2) Sr

(3) Be

(4) Mg

107. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

(1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

(3) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne

(4) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

108. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber's process is :

(1) 30

(2) 40

(3) 10

(4) 20

109. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible region?

(1) Paschen series

(2) Brackett series

(3) Lyman series

(4) Balmer series

110. The non-essential amino acid among the following is:

(1) Alanine

(2) Lysine

(3) Valine

(4) Leucine

111. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is

(1) Ozone

(2) Sulphur dioxide

(3) Nitrous oxide

(4) Methane

112. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is:

(1) Acetone + Carbon disulphide

(2) Heptane + Octane

(3) Water + Nitric acid

(4) Ethanol + Water

113. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is

(1) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

(2) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

(3) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

(4) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d

114. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is :

(1) Amoxycillin

(2) Chloramphenicol

(3) Penicillin G

(4) Ampicillin

115. The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is :

(1) Ion-exchange method

(2) Synthetic resins method

(3) Calgon's method

(4) Clark's method

116. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

(1) Sex ratio

(2) Natality

(3) Mortality

(4) Species interaction

117. The process of growth is maximum during

(1) Log phase

(2) Lag phase

(3) Senescence

(4) Dormancy

118. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(1) Fibrous roots

(2) Primary roots

(3) Prop roots

(4) Lateral roots

119 .Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

120. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1) ZIFT and IUT

(2) GIFT and ZIFT

(4) GIFT and ICSI

121. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.

(2) A person will have only two of the three alleles.

(3) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

(4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar

122. Choose the correct pair from the following

(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules

(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

(3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA

(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

123. Select the correct match

(1) Haemophilia – Y linked

(2) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait

(3) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

(4) Thalassemia – X linked

124. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias polyphagous pest
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

125. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

(1) Trophozoites

(2) Sporozoites

(3) Female gametocytes

(4) Male gametocytes

126. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure

(1) Chitin, cholesterol

(2) Glycerol, trypsin

(3) Cellulose, lecithin

(4) Inulin, insulin

126. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

127. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place

(2) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

(4) Nuclear Division takes place.

128. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in

(1) Lining of intestine

(2) Ducts of salivary gland

(3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

(4) Eustachian tube

129. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(1) They are not bound by any membrane

(2) These are involved in ingestion of food particles

(3) They lie free in the cytoplasm

(4) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

130. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Peroxisomes

(3) Golgi bodies

(4) Polysomes

131. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of

(1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light

(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation

(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

132. Ray florets have

(1) Inferior ovary

(2) Superior ovary

(3) Hypogynous ovary

(4) Half inferior ovary

133. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

(3) They are useful in genetic engineering.

(4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

134. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

(1) Primary sludge

(2) Floating debris

(3) Effluents of primary treatment

(4) Activated sludge

135. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) only (d)

136. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because

(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.

(2) the cockroach does not have nervous system.

(3) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.

(4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.

137. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1) (d) and (c)

(2) (c) and (a)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (b) and (c)

138. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support

(2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf

(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour

(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour

139. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed

(a) In Ur

(1) Prior to ovulation

(2) At the time of copulation

(3) After zygote formation

(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

140. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

(1) 1.5 million

(2) 20 million

(3) 50 million

(4) 7 million

141. The first phase of translation is

(1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome

(2) Recognition of DNA molecule

(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA

(4) Recognition of an anti-codon

142. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

(1) Western Ghats of India

(2) Madagascar

(3) Himalayas

(4) Amazon forests

143. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin

(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli.

144. Identify the category of plant and its part :

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent

(1) Monocotyledonous stem

(2) Monocotyledonous root

(3) Dicotyledonous stem

(4) Dicotyledonous root

145. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by

(1) Karl Ernst von Baer

(2) Alfred Wallace

(3) Charles Darwin

(4) Oparin

146. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is

(1) Transpiration

(2) Root pressure

(3) Imbibition

(4) Plasmolysis

147. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their

(1) Nutritive value

(2) Growth response

(3) Defence action

(4) Effect on reproduction

148. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of

(1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound

(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound

(3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound

(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

149. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to

(1) Insect pests

(2) Fungal diseases

(3) Plant nematodes

(4) Insect predators

150. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1) only (a)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) only (d)

151. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.

(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

(3) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.

152. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?

(1) Out crossing

(2) Mutational breeding

(3) Cross breeding

(4) Inbreeding

153. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1) IIeum opens into small intestine

(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary cana

(3) IIeum is a highly coiled part

(4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum

154. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

(1) Uremia and Ketonuria

(2) Uremia and Renal Calculi

(3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

155. Floridean starch has structure similar to

(1) Starch and cellulose

(2) Amylopectin and glycogen

(3) Mannitol and algin

(4) Laminarin and cellulose

156. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

157. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(1) Laminaria and Sargassum

(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria

(3) Anabaena and Volvox

(4) Chlorella and Spirulina

158. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

(1) High concentration of Estrogen

(2) High concentration of Progesterone

(3) Low concentration of LH

(4) Low concentration of FSH

159. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of

(1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

(2) Emission of ozone depleting substances

(3) Release of Green House gases

(4) Disposal of e-wastes

160. Which of the following is correct about viroids?

(1) They have RNA with protein coat

(2) They have free RNA without protein coat

(3) They have DNA with protein coat

(4) They have free DNA without protein coat

161. The ovary is half inferior in :

(1) Brinjal

(2) Mustard

(3) Sunflower

(4) Plum

162. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of

(1) protein into polypeptides

(2) trypsinogen into trypsin

(3) caseinogen into casein

(4) pepsinogen into pepsin

163. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

(1) 4

(2) 2

(3) 14

(4) 8

164. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by :

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only

(3) Wind and water

(4) Insects and water

165. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop

(1) Cytokinin

(2) Gibberellin

(3) Ethylene

(4) Abscisic acid

166. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

(1) Gibberellic acid

(2) Abscisic acid

(3) Phenolic acid

(4) Para-ascorbic acid

167. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1) DNA ligase

(2) DNA helicase

(3) DNA polymerase

(4) RNA polymerase

168. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

(1) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

169. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity

(2) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity

(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same

(4) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity

170. Strobili or cones are found in

(1) Salvinia

(2) Pteris

(3) Marchantia

(4) Equisetum

171. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Convergent evolution

(3) Industrial melanism

(4) Natural selection

172. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents

(1) Repolarisation of auricles

(2) Depolarisation of auricles

(3) Depolarisation of ventricles

(4) Repolarisation of ventricles

173. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two Hbonds

(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one Hbond

(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds

(4) Adenine does not pair with thymine

174. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed

(1) Selectable marker

(2) Ori site

(3) Palindromic sequence

(4) Recognition site

175. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

(1) Tyrosine

(2) Glutamic Acid

(3) Lysine

(4) Valine

176. Select the correct statement

(1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis

(2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

(3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

(4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.

177. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

(1) Haemoglobin

(2) Collagen

(3) Lectin

(4) Insulin

178. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

(1) Mendel

(2) Sutton

(3) Boveri

(4) Morgan

179. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is

(1) Zero

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

180. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during

(1) Pachytene

(2) Zygotene

(3) Diplotene

(4) Leptotene

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