UGC NET MANAGEMENT-2

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1. The elasticity of demand is greater than unity, when

(A) Percentage change in demand is equal to the percentage change in price.

(B) Percentage change in demand is more than the percentage change in price.

(D) There is change in price.

2. GDP includes which of the following measures?

(A) The size of a population that must share a given output within one year.

(B) The negative externalities of the production process of a nation within one year.

(D) The total monetary value of goods and services including barter transactions within a nation in one year.

3. If the equation y = 5 + 0.6x was graphed, the

(A) Slope would be – 5

(B) Vertical intercept would be + 0.6

(D) Slope would be + 0.6

4. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(a) The producers will offer more of a product at a higher price. (i) Market in equilibrium

(b) The quantum that producers want to sell is equal to the quantum that consumers want to buy. (ii) Law of supply

(d) Percentage change in quantity demanded to percentage change in price. (iv) Price elasticity of demand

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

5. Statement I: The slope of an indifference curve is the Marginal Rate of Substitution in the consumption (MRSc), which is increasing.

Statement II: The slope of the budget line is ratio of the prices of two goods and is the Marginal Rate of Substitution in exchange (MRSe)

(A) Statement I and II are correct.

(B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is not correct, but II is correct.

6. Forming a fixed opinion or attitude towards a single person or object is termed as

(A) Perceptual defense

(B) Stereo typing

(D) The perceptual set

7. Which of the following best describes the theory X?

(A) People are committed to their responsibilities

(B) Motivation is a result of rational behaviour towards attaining goals.

(D) None of the above.

8. Hawthorne experiments were conducted at

(A) Hawthorne Electric Company

(B) Western Electric Company

(D) Eastern Electric Company

9. Match the following:

OD Interventions Grouping Term Proposed by

a. OD Cube 1. French and Bell

b. Consul cube 2. Freneh and Bell

c. Intervention families 3. Blake and Mouton

d. Four quadrants 4. Schmuck and Miles

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 1 2 4 3

10. Match the following:

a. Stability 1. Number of subordinates that report to one supervisor.

b. Strategy 2. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

c. Synergy 3. Plans for the allocation of firm’s scarce resources to reach identified goals in time.

d. Span of control 4. Employees should not be moved frequently from one job to another

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 3 4 1 2

(D) 1 2 3 4

11. Role of Human Resource Manager is

(A) Advisory

(B) Mediator Role

(D) All of the above

12. Which statement is true?

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(A) Job analysis is a group of positions that are similar as to kind and level of work.

(B) A promotion is the advancement of an employee to a better job better in terms of greater responsibilities, more prestige or status, greater skill and especially, increase rate of pay or salary.

(D) All of the above

13. Job is defined as

(A) Set of activities performed in the organization.

(B) Set of activities similar as to kind of work.

(D) None of these.

14. The benefit of paraphrasing in Employee Appraisal is that it

(A) Suggests interest and active listening.

(B) Clarify and convey to the rater that you are listening actively.

(D) All of the above.

15. An employee can be laid off when the organization has

(A) Acquired labour more than the required.

(B) Purchased raw material more than the immediate required.

(D) All of the above.

16. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(Items of HRM) (Features)

a. Human Resource Planning 1. Forecast man power needs based strategies of the trend.

b. Selection 2. Use the criteria and measures developed to match individual skills in the job requirements.

c. Advancement 3. Promotion.

d. Industrial relations 4. Amicable and harmonious working in the organization.

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 1 4 3 2

(D) 4 1 3 2

17. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of having expatriate employees to staff international subsidiaries?

(A) Brings cultural similarities with parent company.

(B) Gives employees a multinational orientation.

(D) Provides broader global perspective.

18. Whistle Blowing is the situation wherein an employee

(A) Causes indiscipline in the organization

(B) Discloses other employees’ illegal immoral or illegitimate activities

(D) All of the above.

19. Distributive bargaining may be explained as

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(A) Bargaining wherein both parties are willing to negotiate over wages, hours and conditions of employment.

(B) Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the cost of disagreeing with the proposed terms would be very high

(C) Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the benefits of agreeing with the proposed terms would be very high.

(D) None of the above.

20. Match the following:

a. Balancing Equity 1. The perceived fairness of the pay structure within a firm.

b. Internal Equity 2. The perceived fairness in pay relative to what other employers are paying for the same type of labour.

c. Individual Equity 3. The perceived fairness in establishment of internal and external pay equity.

d. External Equity 4. The perceived fairness of individual pay decisions.

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 3 4 2 1

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 1 3 2

21. Which of the below features is not wealth maximization objective of Financial Management?

(A) Considers both quantity and quality dimensions of benefits.

(B) Based on the concept of cash flows generated by the decision rather than accounting profit.

(D) Focus is on the value to the owners or suppliers of equity capital.

22. Financial Break-even Level of EBIT is one at which

(A) EPS is one

(B) EPS is infinite

(D) EPS is negative

23. Which of the following is not considered by Miller-Orr Model?

(A) Variability in cash requirement

(B) Cost of transaction

(D) Total annual requirement of cash

24. If the minimum stock level and average stock level of material A are 4000 and 9000 units respectively, what is the Reorder quantity?

(A) 8000 units

(B) 10,000 units

(D) 9,000 units

25. According to Lintner Model, factors affecting dividend of current year are

(A) DPS of previous year, EPS, target pay-out ratio and adjustment rate.

(B) EBIT, interest rate and retention ratio.

(D) E/P ratio, pay-out ratio and rate of interest on it.

26. Given the sales volume, which of the following would lead to an increase in contribution margin?

(A) Variable cost remains same.

(B) Variable cost per unit decreases.

(D) Fixed cost increase.

27. Vertical merger represents merger of firms

(A) Engaged in the same line of business.

(B) At different stages of production in an industry.

(D) All of the above.

28. A high debtor’s turnover ratio indicates

(A) Low amount tied upon debtors

(B) Increase in sales turnover

(D) (A) & (C)

29. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(Statement) (Term)

I. Independent floating exchange rate. 1. Fiat money

II. Exchange rate depending entirely on market forces. 2. Clean float

III. Floating exchange rate regime where the monetary authorities interfere in the foreign exchange market for stabilizing exchange rate. 3. Managed float

IV. Non-convertible paper currency. 4. Free float

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 4 3 1 2

(D) 2 1 3 4

30. Projected cash flows change with changes in projected demand, price, cost of production, cost of capital, etc. All these changes are accommodated in a random manner by

(A) Sensitivity Analysis

(B) Simulation Technique

(D) None of the above

31. When a firm has diversified in unrelated products, it is called

(A) Scramble diversification

(B) Related diversification

(D) Product line simplification

32. Which of the following condition is true about determinants and strengths of positioning strategy?

(A) There should be competition warranting positioning.

(B) The market segment to be served should be sizeable and profitable.

(D) All of these.

33. Delphi method of estimating future demand for a product or service is associated with

(A) Past sales analysis

(B) Expert opinion method

(D) Composite of sales force opinion

34. A method for deriving the utility values that consumers attach to varying levels of a product attribute is called

(A) Product analysis

(B) Conjunctive analysis

(D) Market price analysis

35. Two statements are given below:

Statement I: Opinion leaders who provide product related information to the buyer and assist him or her in buying is called market mover.

Statement II: Opinion leaders who understand the buyer’s personal needs and use situations and aid the buyer is called purchase pal.

Choose the correct option about the statements from the options given below:

(A) Statement I alone is correct.

(B) Statement II alone is correct.

(D) Both statements are correct.

36. Two statements are given below relating to the consumer brand selection model.

Statement I: As per disjunctive decision rule consumers set a minimum acceptable cut off level for each attribute and choose the first alternative that meets the minimum standard for all selected attributes.

Statement II: As per lexicographic decision rule consumers choose the best brand on the basis of its perceived most important attribute.

Choose the correct option about the statements from the options given below:

(A) Statement I alone is correct.

(B) Statement II alone is correct.

(D) Both statements are wrong.

37. Arrange the following stages in the industrial buying process in the sequential order:

1. General need description

2. Supplier search

3. Problem recognition

4. Performance review

5. Order route specification

6. Product specification

7. Proposal solicitation

8. Supplier selection

(A) 3-1-2-6-7-8-5-4

(B) 3-2-1-7-6-5-8-4

(D) 3-1-6-2-7-8-5-4

38. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(Statements) (Terms)

a. Attacking the weak spots of the competitor 1. Flank attack

b. Avoiding the main competitor and attacking easier ones. 2. Frontal attack

c. Attacking the leader on several areas. 3. Encirclement attack

d. Attacking the leader on its strong area. 4. By Pass attack

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 1 4 3 2

(B) 1 3 2 4

(D) 3 1 2 4

39. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(Statements) (Terms)

a. A market situation in which many competitors offering undifferentiated products or services. 1. Pure monopoly

b. A market situation in which many competitors offering differentiated products or services. 2. Oligopoly

c. A market situation in which a small number of large firms offering differentiated and standardized products or services. 3. Monopolistic competition

d. A market situation in which only one firm provides a certain products or services. 4. Pure competition

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 4 3 1 2

(B) 4 2 3 1

(D) 3 4 2 1

40. Which one of the three basic approaches used customarily explaining the Marketing System?

(A) Commodity, institutions and functional approach.

(B) Commodity, functional risks, management approach.

(D) None of the above.

41. Statement I: One of the key factors impacting on Production Managers is that the country’s borders no longer provide protection from foreign imports due to globalization.

Statement II: To succeed in global competition, Production Management of Companies must make a commitment to innovate products and services with high quality at low prices.

(A) Both the statements are incorrect.

(B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect.

(D) Both statements are correct.

42. Positioning the production system means

(A) Selecting the type of product design.

(B) Selecting the type of production processing system

(D) All of the above.

43. Which one is not a part of control charts for variables?

(A) X-chart

(B) R-chart

(D) C-chart

44. Match the following:

List – I List – II

a. Decision-making under conditions of certainty. (i) When the outcomes are known but the probabilities of outcomes are not known.

b. Decision-making under conditions of risk. (ii) When elements of decision problem are clear and also the outcomes of different alternatives are known.

c. Decision-making under conditions of uncertainty. (iii) When outcomes probabilities are known.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (i) (iii) (ii)

45. Edwards Deming, one of the Quality Gurus, introduced a concept of cycle for continuous improvement of quality. The cycle consists of

(i) Act

(ii) Plan

(iii) Do

(iv) Check

The correct order of this cycle of activities is

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

46. Variable which has a strong contingent effect on the independent dependent variable relationship is referred to as

(A) Extraneous variable

(B) Intervening variable

(D) None of the above

47. Coefficient of determination (R2) indicates

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(A) Percentage of variation in the dependent variable that can be explained by independent variable.

(B) Percentage of variation in the dependent variable that cannot be explained by independent variable.

(D) Percentage variation in the independent variable that cannot be explained by the dependent variable.

48. If α = 0.05 and β = 0.10, the power of that hypothesis test is

(A) 0.15

(B) 0.90

(D) 0.95

49. From the statements given below, choose the correct answer.

Statement I: One of the important aspects of IT enabled services is value addition.

Statement II: ERP and CRM are examples for IT enabled services.

Codes:

(A) Statements I and II are correct.

(B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect, but II is correct.

50. Statement 1: The IE Matrix is similar to the BCG Matrix in that both tools involve plotting organisation divisions in a schematic diagram.

Statement 2: The BCG Matrix requires more information about the divisions than the IE matrix.

(A) Statements 1 and 2 both are correct.

(B) Statements 1 and 2 both are incorrect.

(D) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.

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