MAT-1 Thanks For Submitting Your Details. You Can Start Your Test Now!! Name Mobile No. Email Id City State Country Course Q1. A sentence has been divided into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. A In the past, behind the immediate popularity B of the phonograph is the entire electric C implosion that gave such new stress and D importance to actual speech rhythms in music, poetry, and dance alike Q2. A sentence has been divided into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. A Science really begins when general principles B have to be put to the test of fact C and when practical problems and theoretical relations D of relevant factors is used to manipulate reality in human action Q3. A sentence has been divided into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. A If all cells are conceived primarily as a receptacles B of the same genetic formula - not only all C the individuals, but all the cells of D the same individuals - what are they but the cancerous extension of this base formula? Q4. Rearrange the following letters and make a meaningful word which is opposite to the answers. TSTHNAIE A dential B decorte C careful D willing Q5. Rearrange the following letters and make a meaningful word which is opposite to the answers. NIETEMARG A conscience B terminate C confrontation D considerate Q6. Rearrange the following letters and make a meaningful word which is opposite to the answers. TENALSGERI A comfortable B combustible C confess D specialist Q7. What is/ are the primary reason(s) for the lack of complete success in improving health care in India? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcomings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the problem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a supply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, energy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seeking modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges cannot be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets including Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and specialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-ofpocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. Total government apathy in this area. Policy makers' inability to properly priorities the measures required. Shortage of PHCs across the country. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 & 3 D 1, 2 & 3 Q8. It is implied in the passage that For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcomings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the problem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a supply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, energy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seeking modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges cannot be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets including Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and specialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-ofpocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. A when it comes to primary health care facilities, people from villages and A towns are equally at a disadvantage B PHCs established in the country actually become ineffective due to shortage B of doctors and medical supplies C the best way to ensure better health care facilities in the country is to privatise them completely D with the will to work, government can improve health care facilities in the country within a short period Q9. Which of the following statements is/ are true in the context of the passage? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcomings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the problem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a supply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, energy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seeking modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges cannot be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets including Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and specialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-ofpocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. A A country's monetary health is directly affected by the physical health of its citizens B India has lesser number of doctors and nurses than most other countries in the B world C Only about one-fourth of India's population has access to health insurance D All these Q10. Which of the following statements is/ are not true in the context of the passage? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcomings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the problem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a supply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, energy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seeking modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges cannot be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets including Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and specialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-ofpocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. The Government has failed to correctly assess the requirement of medical colleges in India. Over 25% of the doctors who register with the Medical Council of India never get into the medical profession. Private participation in the primary health sector is a must to ensure its success we go forward towards Millennium Development Goals for 2015. A A only B B only C A & B D A, B & C Q11. Which of the following factors is/ are favouring India's transition to a clean energy future? With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electricity consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - energy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a networking service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful transmission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. India has abundant sunlight. India's electricity consumption is less than China's or the USA's? India has ash - rich coal A A only B A & B C A & C D C only Q12. It is implied in the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electricity consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - energy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a networking service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful transmission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. A 'electricity - for - all' should be the Government's motto B traditional electric power should be replaced by solar electric power in India C if India transforms itself into a clearn energy country, the rest of the world C would benefit due to additional electricity available to them D All these Q13. It is not implied in the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electricity consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - energy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a networking service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful transmission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. India should switch over completely to solar power by installing solar power kits in every household. by installing solar panels on every roof top, India could make power grids redundant. per capita energy consumption in China is higher than that in India A A & B B B & C C A & C D A, B & C Q14. It can be inferred from the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electricity consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - energy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a networking service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful transmission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. A India is the third - largest producer of electricity in the world B solar electricity is not necessarily more expensive than coal - based electricity C as of today India, as a country, has energy self - sufficiency D All these Q15. The objective of the author in writing this article appears to be to The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor generates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. A advise the government in financial management of the surplus funds of PSUs B analyse the possible ways in which PSUs could invest their surplus funds to make the same more productive. C ensure better returns for private shareholders. D criticise the government for its archaic fiscal and investment policies. Q16. What are the twin benefits that the author suggests would accure, if PSUs invest their surplus funds more prudently? The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor generates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. A Public sector and private sector banks would both get more - money into their coffers. B Both the Government and private shareholders would earn more returns on their investments in PSU shares. C Projects meant for general public good would get funds more readily; while the funds themselves earn good returns instead of being idly parked. D None of these Q17. It is implied in the passage that the Government. The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor generates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. had hitherto been unjustly siphoning off the surplus funds of PSUs. is bereft of ideas when it comes to deciding where to park the surplus funds of PSUs had always favoured channelising the surplus funds of PSUs into public sector A A only B only C C only D A & B Q18. Which of the following statements about mutual funds is not true in the context of the passage? The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor generates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. A 'Public Sector' mutual fund company is a misnomer now, as most of these companies have got 'foreign', private partners. B Mutual funds of private sector banks alone give good returns C Every PSU has to invest at least 30% of its cash surplus in public sector mutual funds D All these Q19. Which of the following statements about India's nuclear capability building is/ are true? The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been running for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and,  so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An independent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regulate nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. A India has depended on foreign countries to set up the first nuclear reactors in India B To this day India continues to be dependent on foreign countries for maintenance of its nuclear installations. C India has never faced any issues related to environment at its nuclear installations. D All these Q20. How is the safety of nuclear reactors in India ensured? The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been running for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and,  so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An independent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regulate nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. A By keeping usage of radio-active-material to the minimum B By locating the reactors in distant places, far from human habitation. C By ensuring regular inspections by experts available in India A None of these Q21. The author is of the view that The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been running for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and,  so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An independent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regulate nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. A there is severe lack of educational programmes in the field of nuclear technology in India. B the Government agencies have failed to suitably assure the public that the nuclear reactors installed in India pose no threat in general. C nuclear energy can play a bigger role than present in India. D All these Q22. All of the following statements are implied in the passage except The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been running for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and,  so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An independent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regulate nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. A the foreign suppliers of India's first nuclear reactors abandoned them right after installation. B indigenous technical expertise is enough to ensure the safety of Indian nuclear power installations C nuclear radiation is not a factor to be feared by the people of India. D no new regulatory body is required to ensure nuclear safety in India. Q23. Which of the following is not outlined in the passage as a possible retaliatory measure of the pharma companies? Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essential drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were maintained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under  the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and availability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maximum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. Altogether stopping production of the 348 essential drugs put under price Reducing production of non essential drugs. Strive to get the 348 drugs out of the list of essential drugs. A A & B B B & C C A & C D A, B & C Q24. It is implied in the passage that Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essential drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were maintained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under  the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and availability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maximum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. A mandatory levels of production of essential drugs had hitherto never been in existence India B Government control on drugs prices would directly affect their profit margins C Both a and b D Neither a nor b Q25. Which of the following is/ are the outcome(s) of the enactment of Drugs Price Control Order? Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essential drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were maintained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under  the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and availability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maximum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. A The Government has also decided to take up widespread distribution of essential drugs. B There is widespread resentment against this law; chiefly by the drug manufacturers C The Department of Pharmaceutical has been formed to ensure proper implementation of the price control mechanism D None of these Q26. In India the government fixes the prices of Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essential drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were maintained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under  the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and availability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maximum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. A all medicines B essential drugs only C bulk drugs only D None of these Q27. Jayashree was habitually so docile and .......... that her friends could not understand her sudden ......... her employers. A accommodating, outburst against B calm, anger for C truculent, virulence toward D quiet, annoyance toward Q28. Carried away by the ......... effect of the experimental medication, the patient ......... his desire to continue as a subject for as long as he could. A supplementary, announced B smoothening, proclaimed C satisfying, repeated D salutary, reiterated Q29. As several shops have ......... across the street, the old directory is ......... A relocated, obsolete B moved, wasteful C transferred, useless D travelled, redundant Q30. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. Easy or not, etiquette is important There's a reason for doing things the way we do them -- we just have no idea what it is. I had to interrupt my cell phone call to tell him off. I was trying to explain this the other night to my children -- Matt, 15, and Becky, 11 --- who, I'm ashamed to say, have been allowed to develop less than perfect manners, especially at the table. At this particular family dinner, I caught Matt buttering his backed potato with his finger. A ABCDE B ABDEC C BCDAE D BDACE Q31. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. "Are you all right?" I asked, as I helped her to her seat. "That turbulence was as bad as it gets." Flying in the summer means one thing: turbulence. I was working as a flight attendant when we hit a patch of very rough air just after a young teenager, obviously on her first flight, had entered the bathroom. After the bumps had subsided, she exited the bathroom, a look of sheer terror etched on her face. "So that's what it was," she said, "I thought I'd pushed the wrong button." A DAEBC B BCDAE C AEBDC D CADBE Q32. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. But, transportation is difficult and the Pantanal is little known outside of The people who live here have their fingers crossed. Because if ecotourism doesn't work, there is no alternative waiting. There are now some 60-odd tourist facilities here, most of them small and locally owned. Worldwide, the jury is still out on the idea of ecotourism and the Pantanal has become a testing ground. A EDABC B DAEBC C ECBAD D EDCBA Q33. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. And then suppose you pushed the 'Reverse' button and took a trip in the opposite direction journeying into the dim recesses of the past. Just suppose you could clamber aboard a Time Machine and press the 'Forward' button. You might just land right into your favourite period of history. Zap... would you hurtle forward through a blinding flash of days and nights, months and years-- even long centuries--- perhaps, to land into an alien world of the future....? A world that will be a marvel of technology. A CDABE B CBADE C BDEAC D BDECA Q34. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them. A OTLLABFO B NDPGOYLUAR C AOHCC D IONSNTCTOTIC Q35. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them. A SSSROCIS B BELDA C FIENK D DIDLCNKOR Q36. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them. A YOJ B SNAPIHSPE C TEIHGTEDMNL D RHICA Q37. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. An employee who is given the financial support and resources to create new products or systems is called an intrapreneur. Some of the greatest business leaders of the past made their early mark in business as intrapreneurs. Most progressive organisations view intrapreneurship as a way to develop and retain the best manpower and provide an entrepreneurial atmosphere within the organisation. It also adds to the potential of an otherwise static organisation. A An entrepreneur works independently to setup a business venture while an intrapreneur does the same thing for the company he works for. B Intrapreneurship helps organisations to nurture and retain the best of talent for mutual benefit. C Big companies encourage intrapreneurship which, in turn, throws up future entrepreneurs. D While entrepreneurship is a well known concept, intrapreneurship is an emerging concept. Q38. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Health these days is being threatened by a growing phenomenon. Bacteria that cause common life threatening infections are becoming increasingly resistant to antibiotics. This is due to the widespread use and misuse of such antibiotics. Antimicrobial resistance needs immediate attention. Self-medication should be discouraged. Asepsis should be the gospel for the prevention of infection. A Reckless use of antibiotics, the main cause of drug resistant bacteria, has led to a serious health challenge. B Over the counter availability of antibiotics encourages self - medication. C Keeping our surroundings germ - free can curb the need of antibiotics. D Mutated drug resistant bacteria are a serious threat to our life. Q39. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Satyagraha, a philosophy and practice of non-violent resistance, has the power to shame the powerful because it makes a moral statement before the society. But it is only effective when the practitioner acquires the moral right to undertake the action. Only a principled person can carry Satyagraha to its logical end. Any regime, liberal or illiberal, finds it tough to suppress this movement. This weapon of truth and non-violence rarely fails provided it is used selflessly in public interest. Satyagraha become Duragraha if it is used as blackmail. A Satyagraha has time and again proved a powerful tool to fight for a just cause. B Satyagraha is a battle which is sure to win over the opponents. C Unfail demands through Satyagraha amount to blackmailing and are anti to the spirit of Satyagraha. D The success of Satyagraha depends on the integrity, morality and uprightness of the person as well as the fairness of the cause. Q40. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. For long, sociologists have warned of the dire consequences of an increasingly skewed sex ratio. A falling sex ratio is a cumulative process which could lead to more crimes and violence against women. Without enough brides, men would be forced to purchase wives leading to human trafficking. This, in turn, would lead to insecure parents resorting to even more female foeticide and keeping girls indoors out of fear of their protection. In the long run all the gains made in pushing for greater female literacy and empowerment could be undone. A The indiscriminate female foeticide has a potential to create an imbalance in our society and can push women empowerment backwards. B The imbalance in male and female ratio can give rise to more crimes against women. C Deficit in female population can lead to defunct family system. D Skewed male female sex ratio has a potential to reduce women's statue in society. Q41. A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days, respectively. They worked together for 6 days, after which B was replaced by C. If the work was finished in the next 4 days, then the number of days in which C alone could do the work will be A 60 days B 40 days C 35 days D 30 days Q42. B can do a piece of work in 6 hours, B and C together can do it in 4 hours, and A, B and C together in23 hours. In how many hours can A and B together do the same piece of work? A 11 hours B 6 1/7 hours C 2 3/7 hours D 3 3/7 hours Q43. X can do 1/4 of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 3 of the work in 1/13 days. Who will complete the work first? A X B Y B Z D X & Z both Q44. A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each where as B can do the same work in 6 days of 7 hours 2 each. How long will they take to do the work together, working 8 2/5 hours a day? A 2 days B 3 days C 3 1/7 days D 4 2/5 days Q45. When 5 percent is lost in grinding wheat, a country has to import 20 million bags to make up of the loss. But when only 2 percent is lost, it has to import 15 million bags. What is the quantity of wheat which grows in the country in million bags? A 133 1/3 B 150 C 106 2/3 D 166 2/3 Q46. In a consumer preferences survey, 20% respondents opted for product A whereas 60% opted for product B. The remaining individuals were undecided. If the difference between those who opted for product B and those who were undecided is 720, how many individuals had been interviewed for the survey? A 1440 B 1800 C 3600 D Data inadequate Q47. Gauri went to the stationers and bought items worth Rs.25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax-free items? A Rs.15 B Rs.15.70 C Rs.19.70 D Rs.20 Q48. Shyam had three note books X, Y and Z. Of these, X had 120 pages, Y had 10% more and Z had 10% less. If he tore out 5%, 10% and 15% of pages in X, Y and Z respectively, then what percent of total pages did he tear out? A 8% B 15% C 7% D None of these Q49. A bag contains 4 five rupee coins, 3 two rupee coins and 3 one rupee coins. If 6 coins are drawn from the bag at random, what are the odds in favour of the draw yielding maximum amount? A 1 : 70 B 1 : 69 C 69 : 70 D 70 : 1 Q50. Varun throw two unbiased dice together and gets a sum of 7. If his friend Tarun then throws the same two dice, what is the probability that the sum is less than 7? A 1/6 B 7/12 C 1/2 D 5/12 Q51. In a factory where toys are manufactured, machines A, B and C produce 25%, 35% and 40% of the total toys, respectively. Of their output, 5%, 4% and 2% respectively, are defective toys. If a toy drawn at random is found to be defective, what is the probability that it is manufactured on machine B? A 17/69 B 28/69 C 35/69 D None of these Q52. A and B alternately throw a pair of dice. A wins if he throws 6 before B throws 7; and B wins if he throws 7 before Athrows 6. What are their respective chances of winning, if A throws the dice first? A 13/16 , 31/16 B 30/61 , 31/61 C 31/61 , 41/61 D 38/61 , 28/61 Q53. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and 9 years? A 1 : 3 B 1 : 4 C 2 : 3 D Data inadequate Q54. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes A 10% B 10.25% C 10.5% D None of these Q55. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would fetch Rs.482 more. If the interest was payable half yearly than if it was payable annually, the sum is A Rs.10,000 B Rs.20,000 C Rs.40,000 D Rs.50,000 Q56. Sultan took a loan from the bank at 8% per annum, and was supposed to pay a sum of Rs.2240 at the end of 4 years. If the same sum is cleared off in four equal annual installments at the same rate, the amount of annual installment will be A Rs.500 B Rs.550 C Rs.600 D Rs.1000 Q57. A Circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 m and conical above it. If the diameter of the base is 140 m and the slant height of the conical portion is 80 m, the length of canvas 2 m wide required to make the tent is A 8960 m B 9660 m C 9460 m D 9860 m Q58. The ratio between the length and breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/ h completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park in sq. m is A 15360 B 153600 C 30720 D 307200 Q59. If the numbers representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6 Q60. A metal sheet 27 cm long, 8 cm broad and 1 cm thick is melted into a cube. The difference between the surface area of the two solids, is A 284 cm2 B 296 cm2 C 286 cm2 D 300 cm2 Q61. A, B and C have 40, x and y balls, respectively. If B gives 20 balls to A, he is left with half as many balls as C. If together they had 60 more balls, each of them would have had 100 balls on an average. What is the ratio of x to y? A 3 : 2 B 2 : 3 C 2 : 1 D 3 : 4 Q62. There are a total of 43800 students in 4 schools of a city. Half the number of students of the first school, two-thirds of the second, three-fourth of the third and four-fifths of the fourth are all equal. What is the ratio of the number of students of A to D, if A, B, C and D be the first, second, third and fourth schools,respectively? A 8 : 5 B 1 : 3 C 2 : 3 D 7 : 9 Q63. Four numbers are in proportion. The sum of the squares of the four numbers is 50 and the sum of the mean is 5. The ratio of first two terms is 1 : 3. What is the average of the four numbers? A 1 B 3 C 5 D 6 Q64. The concentration of petrol in three different mixtures (of petrol and kerosene) is 1/2 , 3/5 and 4/5 respectively. If 2 litres, 3 litres and 1 litre are taken from these three different vessels and mixed, what is the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the new mixture? A 4 : 5 B 3 : 2 C 3 : 5 D 2 : 3 Q65. A company CEO invited nine persons for a business meeting, where the host will be seated at a circular table. How many different arrangements are possible if two invitees X and Y be seated on either side of the host CEO? A 10080 B 10800 C 9200 D 4600 Q66. Find the number of ways in which ten different flowers can be strung together to make a garland in such a way that three particular flowers are always together? A 30240 B 30420 C 23400 D None of these Q67. A committee of 3 experts is to be selected out of a panel of 7 persons. Three of them are engineers, Three are managers and, one is both engineer and manager. In how many ways can the committee be selected if it must have atleast one engineer and one manager? A 33 B 22 C 11 D 66 Q68. A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from a pool of 16 players that includes 4 bowlers and 2 wicket-keepers. In how many different ways can a team be formed so that the team has at least 3 bowlers and wicket keeper? A 2472 B 2274 C 2427 D 1236 Q69. Vijay purchased two different kinds of alcohol. In the first mixture the ratio of alcohol to water is 3 : 4 and in the second mixture it is 5 : 6. If he mixes the two given mixtures and makes a third mixture of 18 litres in which the ratio of alcohol to water is 4 : 5, the quantity of the first mixture (whose ratio is 3 : 4) that is required to make 18 litres of the third kind of mixture is A 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 Q70. The average marks of the students in four sections A, B, C and D of a school is 60%. The average marks of the students of A, B, C and D individually are 45%, 50%, 72% and 80%, respectively. If the average marks of the students of sections A and B together is 48% and that of the students of B and C together is 60%, what is the ratio of the number of students in sections A and D? A 2 : 3 B 4 : 3 C 5 : 3 D 3 : 5 Q71. Two casks of 48 litres and 42 litres are filled with mixtures of milk and water, the proportions in the two casks being respectively, 13 : 7 and 18 : 17. If the contents of the two casks be mixed and 20 litres of water be added to the whole, what will be the proportion of milk and water in the resulting mixture? A 5 : 12 B 7 : 13 C 12 : 13 D 8 : 15 Q72. Two companies A and B quote for a tender. On the tender opening day, A realises that the two quotes are in the ratio 7 : 4 and hence decreases its price during negotiations to make it Rs.1 lakh lower than B's quoted price. B then realises that the final quotes of the two were in the ratio 3 : 4. By how much did A decrease its price in order to win the bid? A Rs.7 Lakhs B Rs.4 lakhs C Rs.9 lakhs D None of these Q73. To fill a certain tank, pipes A, B and C take 20 minutes, 15 minutes and 12 minutes respectively. If the three pipes are opened every alternate minute, how long will it take to fill the tank? A 5 minutes B 10 minutes C 12 minutes D 15 minutes Q74. A bath can be filled by the cold water and hot water pipes in 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. A person leaves the bathroom after turning on both pipes simultaneously and returns at the moment when the bath should be full. Finding, however, that the waste pipe has been open, he then closes it. In exactly four minutes more the bath is full. In how much time would the waste pipe empty the full bath, if it alone is opened? A 9 minutes B 10 minutes C 12 minutes D None of these Q75. A, B and C are three pipes attached to a cistern. A and B can fill it in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively, while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B and C be kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the cistern be filled? A 180 minutes B 60 minutes C 157 minutes D 155 minutes Q76. Two taps can separately fill a cistern in 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If these two pipes and a waste pipe are kept open simultaneously, the cistern gets filled in 18 minutes. The waste pipe can empty the full cistern in A 7 minutes B 13 minutes C 23 minutes D 9 minutes Q77. Raghu travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5th of his trip. One - third of the whole trip he travelled by car and the rest of the journey he did by train. The distance travelled by train is A 1600 km B 800 km C 1800 km D 480 km Q78. A man has to cover a distance of 6 km in 45 minutes. If he covers one-half of the distance in 2/3rd time, what should be his speed to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time? A 12 km/h B 16 km/h C 3 km/h D 8 km/h Q79. A man starts cycling from A to B and, at the same time, another man starts cycling from B to A along the same path. They completed their journeys in 1 2/3 and 2 2/5 hours, respectively. At what speed has the second man cycled if the first cycles at 16 km/h? A 16 1/2 km/h B 18 1/2 km/h C 11 1/9 km/h D 13 1/3 km/h Q80. Two men A and B start walking from a place 'X' at 4 1/2 km/h and 5 3/4 km/h respectively. How many km apart will they be at the end of 3 1/2 hours if they are walking in the same direction? A 4 1/2 km B 5 3/4 km C 4 3/8 km D 35 7/8 km Q81. What is the differences in volume of sales of brand C in UK and India? Study the graph to answer these questions. The bar graph below shows the sales of six different cell phone manufacturers in 2011 (in '000units). The Adjoining pie chart shows the breakeup of brand C alone in the same year for those countries where it is sold.  2011 Global Sales ('000)s A 2892 B 3290 C 3112 D 2918 Q82. By what percentage should global sales of 'C' phone increase, so that its sales volume in korea becomes 7000 units, while the volume of sales to all other countries remains the same? Study the graph to answer these questions. The bar graph below shows the sales of six different cell phone manufacturers in 2011 (in '000units). The Adjoining pie chart shows the breakeup of brand C alone in the same year for those countries where it is sold. 2011 Global Sales ('000)s A 1.1 B 0.9 C 2.3 D 0.7 Q83. If in 2012 the global sales of brand C increases by 12%, while its sale in USA increases by 34% and in china by 22%, what is the approximate sales increase in the rest of the countries taken together? Study the graph to answer these questions. The bar graph below shows the sales of six different cell phone manufacturers in 2011 (in '000units). The Adjoining pie chart shows the breakeup of brand C alone in the same year for those countries where it is sold. 2011 Global Sales ('000)s A 1.83% B 2.25% C 2% D 1.5% Q84. If A alone registers growth in sales in 2012 and draws level with the volume of B, what would be their combined share of the global sales volume? Study the graph to answer these questions. The bar graph below shows the sales of six different cell phone manufacturers in 2011 (in '000units). The Adjoining pie chart shows the breakeup of brand C alone in the same year for those countries where it is sold. 2011 Global Sales ('000)s A 29.9% B 31.2% C 27% D 33% Q85. If the sale of phones in 2012 registers a uniform 33% growth across all brand and all countries, what would be the combined sales volume of phones in india, Japan and Korea taken together, in that year? Study the graph to answer these questions. The bar graph below shows the sales of six different cell phone manufacturers in 2011 (in '000units). The Adjoining pie chart shows the breakeup of brand C alone in the same year for those countries where it is sold. 2011 Global Sales ('000)s A 87224 B 82136 C 85124.6 D 78958 Q86. If the second-largest importing country increases its off-take of all the minerals, taken together, from india and is at par with the largest importer, its share of the total exports of minerals from india would be? Study the table below to answer these questionThe Table shows the quantities of minerals exported from India to six different countries A,B,C,D,E and F(in '000 tonnes) in the year 2010. A 26% B 19% C 23% D 24% Q87. If India were to ban the export of gold altogether, by what approximate percentage should the export of the rest of the minerals increase so that the total quantity of minerals exported remains the same? Study the table below to answer these question The Table shows the quantities of minerals exported from India to six different countries A,B,C,D,E and F(in '000 tonnes) in the year 2010. A 18 B 3 C 32 D 6 Q88. Eighteen per cent of country E's total requirement of iron ore is being met by imports from India. Next year its total requirement of iron ore is expected to fall by 22% and only 12% of the revised requirement will be imported from India. Assuming all other exports to country E by India remain at the same level, what would be its total percentage drop in quantity exports to E? Study the table below to answer these questionThe Table shows the quantities of minerals exported from India to six different countries A,B,C,D,E and F(in '000 tonnes) in the year 2010. A 28.4 B 11.2 C 13.4 D 18.2 Q89. If international demand for coal from India rises by 12%, that of Iron ore by 8% and copper by 15%, by how much percent will total export from India rise, assuming export of Gold and silver remain at the same level? Study the table below to answer these questionThe Table shows the quantities of minerals exported from India to six different countries A,B,C,D,E and F(in '000 tonnes) in the year 2010. A 6.8 B 11.2 C 8.1 D 7.6 Q90. If due to rise in prices, voume of exports of Gold decreases by 12% while that of Silver decreases by 14%, but due to global rise in car production levels, however, demand for Iron ore increases by 6%, what is the net effect on volume of exports from India Study the table below to answer these questionThe Table shows the quantities of minerals exported from India to six different countries A,B,C,D,E and F(in '000 tonnes) in the year 2010. A Incrase of 3.2% B Decrease of 2.3% C Incrase of 2.3% D Decrease of 3.2% Q91. If a certain village is losing 12% of its water supply each day because of a burst water pipe, then what is the loss in rupee per day? Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. The daily water supply to the village is 700m gallon. The cost to the village for every 24000 gallons of water lost is₹25. A If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II along is not sufficient to answer the question. B If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I along is not sufficient to answer the question. C If both statements I and II together are required to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient D If statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q92. Dipesh had a lawyer's appointment on a certain day. Was the appointment on a Tuesday? Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. Exactly 60 h before the appointment, it was sunday. The appointment is between 1:00pm to 9:00pm. A if statement I aone is sufficient but statement II along is not sufficient to answer the question. B if statement II aone is sufficient but statement I along is not sufficient to answer the question. C if both statements I and II together are required to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient D if statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q93. What is the weighted averaged of marks obtained by Ashokan? Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. Math, Science and English have weights 5, 4 and 3 Simply arithmetic mean of math and science is 140, which is twice his average of science and English A If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II along is not sufficient to answer the question. B If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I along is not sufficient to answer the question. C If both statements I and II together are required to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient D If statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q94. Total amount of ₹38500 was distributed among Anuj, Sonam and Depak. How much does each get? Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. Anuj gets 2/9 of what the other two together get. Sonam gets 3/11 of what the other two together A If statement I aone is sufficient but statement II along is not sufficient to answer the question. B If statement II aone is sufficient but statement I along is not sufficient to answer the question. C If both statements I and II together are required to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient D If statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q95. Nitu and Arun start walking towards each other simultaneously. What is the distance between them when thay start? Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. 30 min after crossing each other they were 1200 m apart. After crossing each other, Nitu reaches the starting point of Arun in Twice as much as Arun takes to reach the starting point of Nitu. A If statement I aone is sufficient but statement II along is not sufficient to answer the question. B If statement II aone is sufficient but statement I along is not sufficient to answer the question. C If both statements I and II together are required to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient D If statements I and II to gether are not sufficient to answer the question Q96. Two quantities A and B are given in each of the following questions. The number of ways you can divide 6 different candies to 4 different people. The number of ways you can divide 7 different candies to 3 different people. A If quantity A is greater than quantity B B If quantity B is greater than quantity A C If quantities A and B are equal D If comparison cannot be made. Q97. Arun and Rakesh bought the same brand of car. Arun got 10% discount from the dealer after which 7% sales tax was added. For Rakesh 7% tax was added and only then a 10% discount was given. Two quantities A and B are given in each of the following questions. The amount Arun paid for the car The amount Rakesh paid for the car A If quantity A is greater than quantity B B If quantity B is greater than quantity A C If quantities A and B are equal D If comparison cannot be made. Q98. The Average Height in the class didn't change after Shaan and John left and Aarti and Geetha came Two quantities A and B are given in each of the following questions. The height of Shaan the height of Aarti A If quantity A is greater than quantity B B If quantity B is greater than quantity A C If quantities A and B are equal D If comparison cannot be made. Q99. Travis received an allowance. With a fifth of the money, he bought a ticket to a movie and with a quartar of what is left he bought a slice of pizza? Two quantities A and B are given in each of the following questions. The price of movie ticket The price of slice of pizza A If quantity A is greater than quantity B B If quantity B is greater than quantity A C If quantities A and B are equal D If comparison cannot be made. Q100. Mukesh and Vijay each have some stamps while Sharon has none. They decided to give Sharon half of the number that Mukesh has and half of the number that Vijay has Two quantities A and B are given in each of the following questions. The average number of stamps that Mukesh and Vijay have before giving Sharon any stamps. The number of stamps that Sharon gets from Mukesh and Vijay A If quantity A is greater than quantity B B If quantity B is greater than quantity A C If quantities A and B are equal D If comparison cannot be made. Q101. What is the ratio of the number of cars sold of model A in 2010 to the number of cars sold of model C in 2011? Study the graph to answer these questions. The combined total sale of six models of cars, A,B,C,D,E and F sold by a manufacturer in 2010 and 2011 was 2222 and 2884, respectively. The percentage breakup of the sales of these six models in the two years are shown in the pie  chart Breakup of Car Sales in 2010 A 1.3 : 2 B 0.58 : 1 C 0.62 : 1 D 1 : 1.27 Q102. By how much percentage is the increase in sale from 2010 to 2011 of model D more/less than that of model C? Study the graph to answer these questions. The combined total sale of six models of cars, A,B,C,D,E and F sold by a manufacturer in 2010 and 2011 was 2222 and 2884, respectively. The percentage breakup of the sales of these six models in the two years are shown in the pie  chart Breakup of Car Sales in 2010 A 69% less B 60% more C 59% less D None of these Q103. How many models have registered higher percentage increase in sales individually, as compared to the percentage increase in total sales? Study the graph to answer these questions. The combined total sale of six models of cars, A,B,C,D,E and F sold by a manufacturer in 2010 and 2011 was 2222 and 2884, respectively. The percentage breakup of the sales of these six models in the two years are shown in the pie  chart Breakup of Car Sales in 2010 A 2 B 3 C 1 D None of these Q104. If the decilining trend in model B sales is projected to continue in 2012 as well, what would be the approximate model B increase in total sales? Study the graph to answer these questions. The combined total sale of six models of cars, A,B,C,D,E and F sold by a manufacturer in 2010 and 2011 was 2222 and 2884, respectively. The percentage breakup of the sales of these six models in the two years are shown in the pie  chart Breakup of Car Sales in 2010 A 459 B 424 C 430 D 434 Q105. What was the ratio of the combined sales of the two highest selling models to that of the two lowest selling models in 2011? Study the graph to answer these questions. The combined total sale of six models of cars, A,B,C,D,E and F sold by a manufacturer in 2010 and 2011 was 2222 and 2884, respectively. The percentage breakup of the sales of these six models in the two years are shown in the pie  chart Breakup of Car Sales in 2010 A 2:1 B 3:2 C 5:1 D 4:1 Q106. What is the ratio of adult females below the age of 50 in the year 1990 and 2000? Study the information below and answer these questions. The adult population of a town in 1990 was 20440 people of which 53% were females while 60% were illiterates. Of these, the number above the age of 50 in that year was 17%. In the 2000 Census, it was found that adult population has reached 30760, 48% of them being females. Of the total adult population in 2000, 72% were below the age of 50 and total illiterates were 7000. Assume uniform pattern of age distribution amongst males and females. A 2.50 : 2 B 2 : 2.50 C 1 : 1.18 D 1.18 : 1 Q107. If every adult female above the age of 50 was given a special annual allowance of 24000 in 1990 which was increased to 30000 by the year 2000, by what percentge has the quantum of this annual allowance increased/decreased from 1990 to 2000? Study the information below and answer these questions. The adult population of a town in 1990 was 20440 people of which 53% were females while 60% were illiterates. Of these, the number above the age of 50 in that year was 17%. In the 2000 Census, it was found that adult population has reached 30760, 48% of them being females. Of the total adult population in 2000, 72% were below the age of 50 and total illiterates were 7000. Assume uniform pattern of age distribution amongst males and females. A 108 B 280 C 208 D 180 Q108. What is the ratio of total adult illiterates in 1990 to total adult females below 50 in 2000? Study the information below and answer these questions. The adult population of a town in 1990 was 20440 people of which 53% were females while 60% were illiterates. Of these, the number above the age of 50 in that year was 17%. In the 2000 Census, it was found that adult population has reached 30760, 48% of them being females. Of the total adult population in 2000, 72% were below the age of 50 and total illiterates were 7000. Assume uniform pattern of age distribution amongst males and females. A 1 : 0.87 B 1.15 : 1 C 0.87 : 1 D 1 : 1.15 Q109. What has been the percentage increase in adult literates from 1990 to 2000? Study the information below and answer these questions. The adult population of a town in 1990 was 20440 people of which 53% were females while 60% were illiterates. Of these, the number above the age of 50 in that year was 17%. In the 2000 Census, it was found that adult population has reached 30760, 48% of them being females. Of the total adult population in 2000, 72% were below the age of 50 and total illiterates were 7000. Assume uniform pattern of age distribution amongst males and females. A 127 B 191 C 132 D 275 Q110. If expense incurred on education (per literate adult) in 1990 was 1200 and the same had increased by 25% in 2000. What is the percentage increase in expenditure under this head? Study the information below and answer these questions. The adult population of a town in 1990 was 20440 people of which 53% were females while 60% were illiterates. Of these, the number above the age of 50 in that year was 17%. In the 2000 Census, it was found that adult population has reached 30760, 48% of them being females. Of the total adult population in 2000, 72% were below the age of 50 and total illiterates were 7000. Assume uniform pattern of age distribution amongst males and females. A 236 B 263 C 250 D 178 Q111. The total number of graduates of which two stream's from all the states taken together are in the ratio 4:5? Study the graph to answer these questions.The graph below shows the number of graduates (in '000) of different streams, in six different states of country. A Science and Engg. B Science and Arts C Arts and IT D Engg. and IT Q112. In which two states is the number of IT graduates, as a percentage of the total number of graduates in that state, most nearly the same? Study the graph to answer these questions.The graph below shows the number of graduates (in '000) of different streams, in six different states of country. A C and F B E and B C A and E D D and F Q113. By what percent is the sum total of Engg. graduates in B, C and F taken together greater than the sum total of Arts graduates in D and E taken together? Study the graph to answer these questions.The graph below shows the number of graduates (in '000) of different streams, in six different states of country. A 56 B 68 C 65 D 86 Q114. The number of Science graduates in all the states combined is what percent of the number of graduates of all other streams taken together? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows the number of graduates (in '000) of different streams, in six different states of country. A 28.5 B 27.9 C 29.7 D 21.4 Q115. In which states is the difference between the number of Engg. and IT graduates higher than the differece between the number of Science and Arts graduates? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows the number of graduates (in '000) of different streams, in six different states of country. A A, C and E B C, F and B C F, B and D D C, D and E Q116. Over the given three years which has been the highest selling colour; and what percentage of volume did it account for? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows sales of different colour of Brand-X refrigerator for the year 2009, 2010 and 2011. Brand-X: Sales volume by colour of refrigrator(in '000s) A Blue, 21% B white, 25% C white, 26% D Lemon, 28% Q117. Sale of which colour(s) of refrigrator registered the highest percentage increase between 2010 and 2011? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows sales of different colour of Brand-X refrigerator for the year 2009, 2010 and 2011. Brand-X: Sales volume by colour of refrigrator(in '000s) A Blue B Lemon C Red and Blue D Grey Q118. What is the share of sales volume accounted for by the year 2011? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows sales of different colour of Brand-X refrigerator for the year 2009, 2010 and 2011. Brand-X: Sales volume by colour of refrigrator(in '000s) A 43.26% B 46.14% C 44.16% D 41.64% Q119. What is approximately the ratio of sales of Red, Lemon and White refrigrators, taken together, in 2010 to that of the combined total sales of Blue and Grey ones in 2009 and 2011 taken together? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows sales of different colour of Brand-X refrigerator for the year 2009, 2010 and 2011. Brand-X: Sales volume by colour of refrigrator(in '000s) A 9 : 10 B 10 : 9 C 11 : 12 D 1 : 1.2 Q120. How many instances are there in the graph where the difference in sale of refrigrators was greater or lesser by 35% or more as compared to the previous year? Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph below shows sales of different colour of Brand-X refrigerator for the year 2009, 2010 and 2011. Brand-X: Sales volume by colour of refrigrator(in '000s) A 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 Q121. India has great potential for consumer products. Conclusions: Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement. Inflation is curbing demand for consumer products. A very large population of the country has a great appetite for consumer A if conclusion I follows B if conclusion II follows C if neither conclusion follows D if both conclusions follow Q122. Introduction of computers and networking revolutionised banking services. Conclusions: Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement. Computers have reduced paperwork to a very large extent All banking functions can be operated and viewed easily on computers. A if conclusion I follows B if conclusion II follows C if neither conclusion follows D if both conclusions follow Q123. Productivity of Indian agriculture is very low. Conclusions: Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement. Indian agriculture is largely dependent on timely rains Indian farmers have not introduced latest technology into the system A if conclusion I follows B if conclusion II follows C if neither conclusion follows D if both conclusions follow Q124. Which of the following statements is definitely true? Read the following information to answer these questions. P, Q, R, S, T and U are the six members of a family There is one Doctor, one Advocate, one Engineer, one Teacher, one Student and one Housewife among them. There are two married couples in the family. U, who is an Advocate, is father of P. Q is a Teacher and is mother of R. S is grandmother of R and is a Housewife. T is the father of U and is a Doctor R is the brother of P A U is father of the Engineer B P is the Engineer C T is father of the Teacher D R is brother of the Student Q125. How many female members are there in the family? Read the following information to answer these questions. P, Q, R, S, T and U are the six members of a family There is one Doctor, one Advocate, one Engineer, one Teacher, one Student and one Housewife among them. There are two married couples in the family. U, who is an Advocate, is father of P. Q is a Teacher and is mother of R. S is grandmother of R and is a Housewife. T is the father of U and is a Doctor R is the brother of P A Three only B Two or three C Two only D Three or four Q126. How is P related to S? Read the following information to answer these questions. P, Q, R, S, T and U are the six members of a family There is one Doctor, one Advocate, one Engineer, one Teacher, one Student and one Housewife among them. There are two married couples in the family. U, who is an Advocate, is father of P. Q is a Teacher and is mother of R. S is grandmother of R and is a Housewife. T is the father of U and is a Doctor R is the brother of P A Either grand daughter or grand son B Grand mother C Grand son D Grand daughter Q127. The family consists of how many generations? Read the following information to answer these questions. In a family, there are 10 members, G and N are a married couple while K is the husband of X. In this family, there are four housewives and four working husbands while other members are non - working. The husband in the last generation is a doctor and the husband of S is a teacher. L is a married woman but her husband is not Q and K are associated with the profession of engineer and accountant but K is not and accountant. P is the brother of T and both have a sister O. N is the daughter of L and X is the mother of P. A 6 B 1 C 4 D 2 Q128. Who is the husband of S? Read the following information to answer these questions.In a family, there are 10 members, G and N are a married couple while K is the husband of X. In this family, there are four housewives and four working husbands while other members are non - working. The husband in the last generation is a doctor and the husband of S is a teacher. L is a married woman but her husband is not Q and K are associated with the profession of engineer and accountant but K is not and accountant. P is the brother of T and both have a sister O. N is the daughter of L and X is the mother of P. A T B K C L D P Q129. Which of the following statements is not true? Read the following information to answer these questions.In a family, there are 10 members, G and N are a married couple while K is the husband of X. In this family, there are four housewives and four working husbands while other members are non - working. The husband in the last generation is a doctor and the husband of S is a teacher. L is a married woman but her husband is not Q and K are associated with the profession of engineer and accountant but K is not and accountant. P is the brother of T and both have a sister O. N is the daughter of L and X is the mother of P. A Husband of X is an engineer. B Second generation members are S, P, T and O. C The number of female members in the family is 5. D The accountant and his wife belong to the 4th generation. Q130. Which of the following means D is definitely daughter of A? Read the following information to answer these questions. P Ψ Q means P is mother of Q. P ε Q means P is sister of Q. P $ Q means P is father of Q. P # Q means P is brother of Q. A A $ B # C # D B C Ψ A $ D ε B C A Ψ C $ B ε D D B Ψ A $ C # D Q131. Which of the following means R is brother of T? Read the following information to answer these questions. P Ψ Q means P is mother of Q. P ε Q means P is sister of Q. P $ Q means P is father of Q. P # Q means P is brother of Q. A R Ψ S # U $ T B U Ψ R # S # T C U Ψ R ε S # T D K # R $ S ε T Q132. Which of the following means A is nephew of C? Read the following information to answer these questions. P Ψ Q means P is mother of Q. P ε Q means P is sister of Q. P $ Q means P is father of Q. P # Q means P is brother of Q. A D # C $ B # A ε E B A # B $ D ε E $ C C C # D $ B # A $ E D B Ψ E # C $ E ε A Q133. What is the profession of K? Read the following information to answer these questions. Six members of a family G, H, I, J, K and L are Accountant, Clerk, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer, but not in the same order. Doctor is the grandfather of L who is an Accountant. Clerk J is married to G. I, who is a Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. H is the mother of L and K. There are two married couples in the family. A Doctor B Clerk C Engineer D Accountant Q134. How many male members are there in the family? Read the following information to answer these questions. Six members of a family G, H, I, J, K and L are Accountant, Clerk, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer, but not in the same order. Doctor is the grandfather of L who is an Accountant. Clerk J is married to G. I, who is a Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. H is the mother of L and K. There are two married couples in the family. A Two B Three C Four D Cannot be determined Q135. How is G related to K? Read the following information to answer these questions. Six members of a family G, H, I, J, K and L are Accountant, Clerk, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer, but not in the same order. Doctor is the grandfather of L who is an Accountant. Clerk J is married to G. I, who is a Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. H is the mother of L and K. There are two married couples in the family. A Wife B Father C Grandmother D Grandfather Q136. How is J related to G? Read the following information to answer these questions. There are six children playing football namely G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G's uncle. H and J are the daughters of the brother of I's father. A Sister B Niece C Cousin D Uncle Q137. How is I related to L? Read the following information to answer these questions. There are six children playing football namely G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G's uncle. H and J are the daughters of the brother of I's father. A Cousin B Son C Uncle D Brother Q138. How many male players are there? Read the following information to answer these questions. There are six children playing football namely G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G's uncle. H and J are the daughters of the brother of I's father. A One B Three C Four D Five Q139. In each of these questions, two statements I and II are given. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent cause. Statement I: Drinking tea has a number of health benefits. A cup of the beverage can help slash the risk of developing cancer by shrinking tumours. Statement II: The new research has shown that black tea could help prevent cancer. The compound Theaflavin-2 which has antioxidant properties reduces the risk of some cancers as well as heart disease. A if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. B if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. C if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. D if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. Q140. In each of these questions, two statements I and II are given. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent cause. Statement I: India has lost a staggering $ 462 billion in illicit financial flows due to tax evasion, crime and corruption post - Independence according to a report released by Washington-based Global Financial Integrity. Statement II: More than 40% of the FDIs to India originate from Mauritius. Mauritius has now agreed to negotiate and revise the existing Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with India, as capital gains is exempted from tax in Mauritius and a Mauritian company cannot be taxed in India. A if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. B if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. C if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. D if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. Q141. In each of these questions, two statements I and II are given. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent cause. Statement I: Not a single Indian University, including the IITs, has fared well in an all-Asian varsity ranking for the year 2011. IIT - Bombay is the only one to figure in the world top 200 at 187, lower than the previous year's rank of 163. Statement II:A university founded merely two decades ago- the Hong Kong University of Science and Technology- has topped the charts. The university of Cambridge got a perfect 100. All the seven old IITs have made it to the Asian University ranking, but their ranks have slid. A if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. B if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. C if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. D if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. Q142. Certainty Each of these question consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the given alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship. A Falsehood : Truth B Hearsay : Authenticity C Theorem : Proof D Hunch : Guess Q143. Coal : Thermal Each of these question consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the given alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship. A Power : Energy B Bulb : Light C Air : Atmosphere D Water : Hydel Q144. Court : Justice Each of these question consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the given alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship. A Police : Crime B Teacher : Study C Doctor : Sickness D Auditor : Accuracy Q145. Relaxation : Work Each of these question consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the given alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship. A Play : Cheat B Lunch : Dinner C Smile : Laugh D Fresh : Stale Q146. B0R, E3U, G9Y, J18D, ? Complete the series by replacing the '?' A E30P B H27N C L30J D G33U Q147. A729, G343, ?, S9, Y1 Complete the series by replacing the '?' A L64 B M75 C Q100 D M125 Q148. Q331T, U442X, Y553A, ? Complete the series by replacing the '?' A Z665D B C664C C B666D D B664F Q149. RL12, TQ20, WU32, AX48, ? Complete the series by replacing the '?' A EZ68 B FZ68 C GZ68 D HZ68 Q150. V2R, Y8T, B15V, E76X, ? Complete the series by replacing the '?' A F350Z B G452Z C H355B D H355Z Q151. How is the son-in-law of my wife's only sister related to my wife's brother? For the following questions answer them individually A Cousin B Nephew C Uncle D Son-in-law Q152. 'B', the son of 'A', was wedded to 'C' whose sister 'D' was married to 'E'. If E is the brother of 'B', how is 'D' related to 'A'? For the following questions answer them individually A Sister B Daughter C Daughter-in-law D Cousin Q153. Krishna is the mother - in - law of Bindu who is the sister - in - law of Ahsaan. Dharmender is the father of Sandeep, the only brother of Ahsaan. How is Krishna related to Ahsaan? For the following questions answer them individually A Wife B Aunt C Mother - in - law D Mother Q154. A clock is place in such a manner that at 12 o' clock, its minute-hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour-hand point at 1 : 30 pm? For the following questions answer them individually A West B South C North D East Q155. Ram starts from his house on cycle and goes 10 km towards North - East. He turns to the left and cycles 8 km, then he turns towards South - East and cycles for another 10 km. Finally, he turns towards his house. In which direction is he going now? A South B South - East C West D North - West Q156. Mahender walked 30 metres towards east, took a right turn and walked another 40 metres. He again took a left turn and moved 30 metres. In which direction is he now from the starting point? A North - East B East C South - East D South Q157. Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Assertion (A): It has now been proved that eating high fat diets, having decreased level of exercise and leading a stressful life lead to heart problems.Reason (R): Fatty diets clot the blood in our arteries and hence sufficient amount of blood can't reach the heart vessels. A if both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'. B if both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'. C if 'A' is true but 'R' is false. D if 'A' is false but 'R' is true. Q158. Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Assertion (A): The screening of film 'ABC' has been stopped due to a High Court order. Reason (R): People abide by the decisions of the High Court. A if both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'. B if both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'. C if 'A' is true but 'R' is false. D if 'A' is false but 'R' is true. Q159. Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Assertion (A): Residents of 'XYZ' colony in Delhi are agitating against the irregular and inadequate water supply in their colony. Reason (R): Agitation is a basic right of people to get the water supply for their survival. A if both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'. B if both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'. C if 'A' is true but 'R' is false. D if 'A' is false but 'R' is true. Q160. Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Assertion (A): A student who is indisciplined brings a bad name to himself, his parents, his teachers and also to his institute. Reason (R): We must find out the grievances of our students and try to resolve them to a reasonable level so that it generates self-discipline in them. A if both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'. B if both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'. C if 'A' is true but 'R' is false. D if 'A' is false but 'R' is true. Q161. Julia Gillard is currently the Prime Minister of Add description here! A Uk B Holland C France D None of these Q162. World post Day is celebrated on A 9 October B 30 January C 2 November D 27 November Q163. Who among the following bacame the President of Venezuela of the third consecutive term? A Henrique Capriles B Hugo Chavez C Tanvir Mahmud D None of these Q164. Britain and Scotland have signed an agreement to hold a referendum in ....... on the latter's independence A 2015 B 2014 C 2016 D 2017 Q165. Who among the following is the teenaged Pakistani girl activist who became famous world wide after a near fatal attack on her? A Kainat B Shazia C Malala D None of these Q166. Monisha Kaltenborn is associated with which sport? A Golf B Cycling C Formula One D Lawn Tennis Q167. Who was captain of the West Indies cricket team that won the T-20 Cricket World Cup 2012 held in Srilanka? A Kieron Pollard B Chris Gayle C Dwayne Bravo D Darren Sammy Q168. Wayne Rooney of England is a well known player of A Polo B Football C Lawn Tennis D Chess Q169. Which of the following cities will be hosting the next Olympic Games to be held in 2016? A Moscow B Melbourne C Rio de Janeiro D Toronto Q170. Which car company has recently launched SUV segment vehicle 'Quanto' in india? A BMW B Skioda C Mahindra and Mahindra D Ford Q171. The Diesel Loco Modernization Works of india Railways is situated in A Ludhiana B Chennai C Patiala D Kolkata Q172. The Government recently cancelled the permission given to .......... for setting up of a Special Economic Zone(SEZ)in Mundra in Gujrat due to charge of violotion of the SEZ Act A Reliance Group B Aditya Birla Group C Adani Group D Godrej Group Q173. Which Indian IT cimpany has recently acquired consulting firm Lodestone? A TCS B Wipro C Infosys D Mahindra-Satyam Q174. Which of the following is an Indian origin banking firm? A HSBC B CitiBank C YesBank D RBS Q175. POSCO is a major steel of which country? A Korea B China C Indonesia D None of these Q176. Steve Ballmer is the CEO of which corporate? A Vodafone B Microsoft C Google D None of these Q177. Which of the following brand of cars is owned by the Japanese automobile major Nissan A Rapid B Brio C Sunny D EON Q178. The tag line 'The power to do more' is linked with A Dell B Lenova C HP D Sony Q179. Timothy Geither is currently the treasure secretary of which country? A France B US C England D None of these Q180. Information technology corporate giant Apple recently won a $1.05 billion patent case against A Samsung B LG C Hyundai D Philips Q181. World Bank has recently appointed........as its chief economist and senior vice president A Montek Singh Ahluwalia B Kaushik Basu C C Amartya Sen D C. Rangarajan Q182. Which of the following corporate houses is the India Partner of global coffee chain 'starbucks' A Tatas B Aditya Birla C Godrej D None of these Q183. Which state has the largest urban population in India? A Maharashtra B Kerala C Chattisgarh D West Bengal Q184. Mr.hamid Ansai was re-elected as india's .........president A 13th B 14th C 12th D 11th Q185. 'DreamYuga' is motorbike launched by which company? A Hero B Honda C TVS D Yamaha Q186. Which Insurance company uses the tag line 'jiyo befikar'? A LIC B ICICI Prudential C TATA-AIG D Bajaj Allianz Q187. Which India City has an IIT and IIM both situated in india? A Indore B Raipur C Kozikhode D Bengaluru Q188. Who became the first woman speaker of Lok Sabha in india? A Sarojini Naidu B Meira Kumari C Arun Asif Ali D Indira Gandhi Q189. Kargil Vijay Divas is celebrated on.............every year in honour of kargil war heroes A 2 November B 26 July C 27 November D 15 July Q190. CBDT standa for A Central Boards of Direct Tarrifs B Central Boards of Direct Taxation C Central Boards of Direct Taxes D Central Boards of Daily Taxes Q191. Which is the most mobile chess piece? A Rook B Horse C Queen D Bishop Q192. Thomas Cup is associated with which sport? A Badminton B Golf C Tennis D Hockey Q193. Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research is located at A Nasik B Lucknow C Meerut D Pune Q194. Telecom giant 'NOKIA' comes from A Germany B Finland C Poland D Australia Q195. Which Indian state projects itself as 'God's Own Country? A Uttarakhand B UP C Kerala D MP Q196. Which country includes its income cocaine and narcotics in its GDP? A Columbia B Venezula C Afghanistan D Peru Q197. Which of the following sectors is not the part of infrastructure? A Railways B Power C Food Processing D Roads Q198. Which among the following is the oldest development financial institution of India? A UTI B IDBI C ICICI D IFCI Q199. 'Prima' is a newly launched A Car B Tractor C Truck D motor-cycle Q200. Dudhwa National Park is located on A UP B Uttarakhand C MP D West Bengal Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451 Time's up