MAT-2 Thanks For Submitting Your Details. You Can Start Your Test Now!! Name Mobile No. Email Id City State Country Course Q1. Who is the slowest among the three workers P, Q and R? Statements:I. P and Q together fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 11 hours.II. P, Q and R together can fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 5 hours.Choose the correct Option: A) If the data in both the statements I and II are required to answer the question B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question D) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q2. The aggregate marks of three students X, Y and Z was 2025. What were the marks of each of the students? Statements:I. Y and Z together secured 1324 marks.II. X and Z together secured 1355 marks.Choose the correct option: A) If the data in both the statements I and II are required to answer the question B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question D) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q3. What is the ratio of the number of female voters to the number of male voters in a booth? Statements:I. The number of voters is 993 and the number of female voters is 368 in the booth.II. The number of female voters is more than 1/4th of total voters in the booth.Choose the correct option: A) If the data in both the statements I and II are required to answer the question B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question D) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q4. Does the speed of the train exceed 80 km/hr? Statements:I. The train crosses a pole in 8 sec.II. The train takes 12 sec to cross a 150 m long bridge.Choose the correct option: A) If the data in both the statements I and II are required to answer the question B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question D) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q5. What is the angle between 2 hands of a watch? Statements:I. 20 min earlier the angle was 150.II. The min hand will reach 6 in around 10 min.Choose the correct option: A) If the data in both the statements I and II are required to answer the question B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question D) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question Q6. The percentage of production of Company R to production of Company Q is the maximum in the year A) 2005 B) 2004 C) 2003 D) 2006 E) None of these Q7. The ratio of the average production of Company P during the years 2005 to 2007 to the average production of Company Q for the same period is A) 15 : 17 B) 23 : 25 C) 27 : 29 D) 29 : 27 E) 25 : 23 Q8. The percentage increase in production of Company Q from the year 2003 to the year 2007 is A) 60% B) 80% C) 90% D) 100% E) None of these Q9. The average production over the years 2003 – 2007 was maximum for the Company(ies) A) R B) Q C) P D) P and R E) None of these Q10. The percentage rise or fall in production of Company Q as compared to the previous year is the maximum in the year A) 2006 B) 2005 C) 2004 D) 2007 E) None of these Q11. What is the sum of profits made by Companies A & B? Study the table below to answer the following question.Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings. A) Rs. 700 lakh B) Rs. 500 lakh C) Rs. 600 lakh D) Rs. 800 lakh Q12. What is the sum of the borrowings of all five companies? Study the table below to answer the following question.Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings. A) Rs. 14.6 crore B) Rs. 146 lakh C) Rs. 14.6 lakh D) None of these Q13. By how much do the borrowings of Company B exceed that of Company A? Study the table below to answer the following question.Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings. A) Rs. 1,000,000 B) Rs. 1,210,000 C) Rs. 1,320,000 D) Rs. 1,100,000 Q14. By how much does the dividend paid by Company D exceed that of Company A? Study the table below to answer the following question.Profit earned is either paid out as dividend or ploughed back in business as retained earnings. Interest is paid on borrowings. A) Rs. 320 lakh B) Rs. 85 lakh C) Rs. 32 lakh D) Rs. 230 lakh Q15. How many students of institutes P and W are studying at graduate level? A) 9046 B) 7486 C) 8636 D) 9256 E) 7898 Q16. Total number of students studying at post-graduate level from institutes T and V is A) 6510 B) 6070 C) 6890 D) 6230 E) 6650 Q17. What is the total number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels in institute S? A) 5764 B) 5534 C) 5084 D) 5246 E) 5142 Q18. What is the nearest ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels in institute R? A) 4 : 5 B) 6 : 7 C) 3 : 4 D) 13 : 15 E) 9 : 7 Q19. What is the nearest ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate level in institute V and graduate level in institute T? A) 6 : 7 B) 8 : 9 C) 4 : 5 D) 3 : 4 E) 1 : 2 Q20. Between 2004 and 2005, the increase in yield per tonne km in April as a ratio to the increase in yield per tonne km in July is closest to which of the following? A) 4 : 7 B) 5 : 7 C) 3 : 8 D) 7 : 4 Q21. Air India’s average profit from 2001 – 02 to 2004 – 05 was A) Rs. 24015 lakh B) Rs. 3575 lakh C) Rs. 3404 lakh D) None of these Q22. Air India’s yield per tonne km from April to May 2004 increased by A) 0.35% B) 0.26% C) 2.6% D) 0.21% Q23. The average increase in the passenger load factor over the four years was A) 3.466% B) 2.6% C) 1.2% D) None of these Q24. The overall average speed of the entire trip excluding stoppage time is nearly A) 46 km/h B) 75 km/h C) 81 km/h D) 65 km/h E) None of these Q25. What percentage of time of the entire trip was actually spend traveling between the cities? A) 76% B) 42.4% C) 92.4% D) 2.4% E) None of these Q26. The total stoppage time at the cities in the first half and second half of the total distance is in the ratio A) 2 : 1 B) 1 : 3 C) 3 : 1 D) 1 : 2 E) None of these Q27. Between how many pairs of consecutive stations does the speed run below the overall average speed of the entire trip (Time is calculated from arrival to arrival)? A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) None of these Q28. If the train stops at the each of the cities for 56% more time than what is at present, then at what time will it arrive at city H if after departing from city A as per schedule? A) 18.15 B) 20.16 C) 19.02 D) 18.54 E) None of these Q29. How many more people from city S would have made the ratio 11:9 between the number of people contributing from cities S and T respectively? A) 1500 B) 2000 C) 5500 D) 3500 E) None of the above Q30. Number of people contributing from Q and U together form what percent of the total number of people contributing from all the given cities? A) 30% B) 36% C) 32% D) 38% E) None of the above Q31. Number of people contributing from how many cities form less than 18% of the total number of people contributing from all the cities together? A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1 E) None of the above Q32. Approximately by what percent number of people contributing from city T are more in comparison to the people contributing from city S? A) 38% B) 18% C) 22% D) 29% E) None of the above Q33. What is the respective ratio between numbers of people contributing from City P to those from city R? A) 4 : 5 B) 4 : 7 C) 7 : 4 D) 5 : 9 E) None of the above Q34. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column B The average speed needed to drive 350 km in 5 hrs. The average speed needed to drive 780 km in 12 hrs. A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q35. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q36. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column B 3x – (4 + x) 2x – 4 A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q37. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column BTwice the sum of 14 and b, divided by 2 b + 14 A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q38. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column BThe area of a square whose sides The area of a rectangle with have a length of 3x length 2x and width x A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q39. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column B The surface area of a cube with an edge 4 inch long The surface area of a regular pyramid with a length of 5 inch A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q40. The question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Column A Column B The volume of a cylinder if the radius is doubled The volume of a cylinder if the height is doubled A) If the two quantities are equal B) If the quantity in Column B is greater C) If the quantity in Column A is greater D) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Q41. Which international tennis player failed a dope test at the Australian Open 2016 for a drug Meldonium which became a banned substance under the WADA code this year? A) Martina Hingis B) Maria Sharapova C) Ana Ivanovic D) Venus Williams Q42. Which team has won the 70th edition of Santosh Trophy Football Championships title 2016? A) Maharashtra B) Services C) Railways D) West Bengal Q43. Tourism campaign titled 'New Worlds' of which state has won the prestigious 'Golden City Gate Award' at the Internationale TourismusbCrse Berlin (ITB-Berlin) 2016? A) Utter Pradesh B) Gujarat C) Kerala D) Telangana Q44. Which of the following is the oldest Central Para Military force in India? A) CISF B) CRPF C) BSF D) Assam Rifles Q45. Who among the following has been elected as the first civilian president of Myanmar in 53 years in March 2016? A) Htin Kyaw B) Henry Van Thio C) Myint Swe D) None of these Q46. In which one of the following cities, the Iron Fist 2016 exercise (air power demonstration) was conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) in March 2016? A) Gujarat B) Punjab C) Maharashtra D) Rajasthan Q47. What was the name of the Internet pioneer and e-mail inventor, who has passed away in Washington, USA at the age of 74 years? A) Anita Brookner B) Raymond Tomlinson C) Lloyd Stoweli Shapley D) George Henry Martin Q48. Which one of the following teams won the third season of Star Sports Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) in March 2016? A) U Mumba B) Patna Pirates C) Bengal Warriors D) Dabang Delhi Q49. Which one of the following nationalized banks from India was granted operating licence by Myanmar Government along with three other Asian banks? A) Indian Overseas Bank B) Bank of Baroda C) State Bank of India D) Central Bank of India Q50. Which state/UT is first in the country to launch the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine in March 2016 as a public health programme for school children? A) Delhi B) Manipur C) Uttarakhand D) Kerala Q51. Which retail company has tied up with Tata's Trent to retail its FMCG products through the later's Star Bazar outlets? A) Aditya Birla Group B) Future Group C) Reliance Retail Ltd D) Bharti Retail Ltd Q52. Which country has second referendum in March 2016 on whether to change their national flag from a design which features the British Union Jack to one which features a native silver fern? A) New Zealand B) Canada C) Australia D) South Africa Q53. Who among the following shooter clinched the gold in 50 m pistol event at the ISSF World Cup in Bangkok in March 2016? A) Heena Sidhu B) Jitu Rai C) Sunil Gurang D) Vijay Kumar Q54. Which one of the following IT companies has launched the ‘ENVY13' a computer notebook? A) Samsung Tech B) Lenovo Tech C) HCL D) Hewlett Packard Q55. According to the Chinese Zodiac, 2016 is the year of the ________, which has started from 08 February 2016. A) Rabbit B) Dragon C) Monkey D) Snake Q56. Which among the following group of nations has successfully launched 'ExoMars 2016’, an unmanned spacecraft to search for biosignatures on Mars? A) Europe and Russia B) The USA and South America C) The UK and China D) Brazil and Japan Q57. Railways has announced in the railway budget 2016-17, the launch of a new train named________, having fully air-conditioned third AC services with an optional services for meals for reserved passengers. A) Uday B) Hamsafar C) Tejas D) Antyodaya Express Q58. Who among the following has been selected for the Padma Vibhushan 2016 in the field of Medicine-Oncology? A) Vishwanathan Shanta B) Ramoji Rao C) Vasudev Kalkunte Aatre D) Avinash Dixit Q59. The Govt. of India has approved in-principle for setting up Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO) in India with LIGO Laboratory from A) Germany B) France C) The USA D) Japan Q60. 'Setu Bharatam’ launched in March 2016, is an ambitious programme of Govt. of India with an investment of __________ to build bridges for safe and seamless travel on National Highways. A) Rs. 50,000crore B) Rs. 45,000crore C) Rs. 40,000crore D) Rs. 35,000crore Q61. Who has been elected as the new President of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) in 2016? A) Sheikh Salman B) Prince Ali C) Gianni Infantino D) None of these Q62. Mathematician Andrew J Wiles who won the prestigious 2016 Abel Prize given by the Norwegian Academy of Sciences and Letters belongs to A) Finland B) The UK C) Canada D) Sweden Q63. Capital Local Area Bank (CLAB) Limited which became the first financial entity in India to get Small Financial Bank Licence by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is from A) Uttar Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Andhra Pradesh D) Punjab Q64. Which is the indigenously developed instrument deployed by the India Meteorology Department (IMD) which provides real time visibility information to pilots? A) DRISHTI B) JYOTI C) UDAY D) UJWAL Q65. Where did the four day biennial event, Defexpo India 2016, India's biggest ever land, naval and homeland security exhibition take place in March 2016? A) New Delhi B) Goa C) Hyderabad D) Pune Q66. Who among the following chess players won the 2016 FIDE World Chess Candidates Tournament in March 2016? A) Fabiano Caruana B) Sergey Karjakin C) Viswanathan Anand D) Veselin Topalov Q67. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched India's first indigenous rotavirus vaccine named 'Rotavac' to combat infant mortality due to A) Polio B) Measles C) Tetanus D) Diarrhea Q68. India Post has released for the first time a customized 'My Stamp’ on in recognition of the company's 75 years of services to the nation. A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) B) State Bank of India (SBI) C) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd, (NTPC) D) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) Q69. The US President Barack Obama has made a historic visit to" which one of the following North-American countries after a gap of 88 years by any US President? A) Mexico B) Cuba C) Honduras D) Nicaragua Q70. As per the GOI latest report, the UIDAI has generated the 100th crore Aadhaar on April 4, 2016, out of this ___________ people are above the age of 18 who have got Aadhaar. A) 80% B) 86% C) 89% D) 93% Q71. Which among the following university is ranked first as per the 'India Rankings 2016', India's first ever ranking of Indian institutions released by GOI? A) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai, Maharashtra B) Jawahartal Nehru University, Delhi C) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, Karnataka D) University of Hyderabad, Hyderabad, Telanagana Q72. The Prime Minister of India has gifted to King of Saudi Arabia, a gold-plated replica of the Cheraman Juma Masjid located in______, during to his visit to our country. A) Telangana B) Delhi C) Uttar Pradesh D) Kerala Q73. Which private equity player has acquired Bengaluru-based IT services company Mphasis in one of the largest deal in India for Rs. 7100 crore? A) Kotak Private Equity Group B) The Cartyte Group C) Blackstone India D) None of these Q74. How much refunds (approx.) worth of rupees has been issued by the Income Tax department of India in the year 2015-16? A) Rs. 0.67 lakh crore B) Rs. 083 lakh crore C) Rs. 1.01 lakh crore D) Rs. 1.17 lakh crore Q75. In which place, the Rs. 345 crore refinery of Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) was dedicated in the recent past to the nation which helped IOC to become country's top refiner? A) Digboi Refinery, Assam B) Paradip refinery, Odisha C) Barauni refinery, Bihar D) Haldia Refinery, West Bengal Q76. According to the food and agriculture organisation of the UN, India currently accounts for nearly_________ of worlds' total milk production. A) 10% B) 13% C) 16% D) 19% Q77. Which telecom sector company has a Rs. 3500 crore spectrum deal with Aircel to get Ail-India 4G frequency in eight circles in India? A) Reliance JIO B) Idea Cellular C) Bharti Telecom D) Vodafone Q78. President of which one of the following SAARC countries has visited India in April 2016 to sign an action plan on Defence Corporation with India? A) Nepal B) Maldives C) Bangladesh D) Sri Lanka Q79. Filmmaker Sharmeen Obaid-Chinoy who won the Oscar in 2016 for her documentary film to the life of an honor killing survivor is from A) Afghanistan B) Pakistan C) Bangladesh D) India Q80. Harinder Sindhu of Indian region is the new High Commissioner-designate of ________in India. A) Australia B) Canada C) UK D) Singapore Q81. A hater of learning and knowledge Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question. A) misologist B) bibliophilic C) illiterate D) misogynist Q82. A disease that spreads by means of germs carried in atmosphere Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question. A) contagious B) epidemic C) infectious D) endemic Q83. A large-scale departure of people from a territory Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question. A) exodus B) immigration C) migration D) aberration Q84. A speech made by someone for the first time Choose the option which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given question. A) maiden B) extempore C) spontaneous D) sermon Q85. Because of its tendency to __________ , most Indian art is ___________ Japanese art, where symbols have been minimized and meaning has been conveyed by using the method of the merest suggestion. In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. A) overdraw, similar to B) understate, reminiscent of C) imitate, superior to D) sentimentalise, supportive of E) carried , immigrate Q86. In the absence of native predators to stop the spread of their population, the imported goats ________ to such an inordinate degree that they over-grazed the countryside ________ and the native vegetation. In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. A) thrived, threatened B) suffered, abandoned C) propagated, cultivated D) dwindled, eliminated Q87. Carried away by the ______ effects of the experimental medication, the patient _______ his desire to continue as a subject for as long as he could. In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. A) frantic, repeated B) noxious, proclaimed C) supplementary, announced D) salutary, reiterated Q88. Just as a highway automobile accident leaves lasting marks of spilled coolant, ______ and oil, the smashing together of gigantic land masses releases and redirects fluids that flow, heat, _______ and deposit, leaving an enduring record of their presence. In the following question, choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. A) paint, mark B) fuel, evaporate C) petrol, disappear D) anti-freeze, drip Q89. We want the trainer to be him who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills. the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. A) We want him to be the trainer who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills B) We want the trainer to be he who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills C) We want the trainer to be him who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills D) We desire that the trainer be him who has the best rapport, knowledge about the subject and the most superior communication skills Q90. The government’s failing to keep its pledges will have the effect of earning distrust from all the other nations in the region. In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. A) The government’s failing to keep its pledges will have the affect of earning distrust from all the other nations in the region B) The government failing to keep it’s pledges will have the effect of earning distrust from all the other nations in the region C) The government’s failing to keep its pledges will have the affect of earning distrust from all the other nation in the region D) The government failing to keep its pledges will have the effect of earning distrust from all the other nations in the region Q91. Liberalization has gone hand-in-hand and has offered incentives for such things as personal initiative, ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness. In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. A) Liberalization had gone hand-in-hand with and has offered incentives for such things as personal initiative and ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness B) Liberalization has gone hand-in-hand with and has offered incentives for such things as personal initiative and ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness C) Liberalization has gone hand-in-hand and has offered incentives for such things as personal initiative, ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness D) Liberalization has gone hand-in-hand and is offering incentives for such things as personal initiative, ambition, loyalty, hard work, and resourcefulness Q92. To be sure, there would be scarcely no time left over for other things if school children would have been expected to have considered all sides of every matter on which they had opinions. In the question given below, identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. A) To be sure, there would be scarcely any time left over for other things if school children were expected to consider all sides of every matter on which they had opinions B) To be sure, there would be scarcely any time left for other things if working people should be expected to have considered all sides of every matter on which they had opinions C) There would be scarcely no time left over for other things if working people would have been expected to have considered all sides of every matter on which they had opinions D) To be sure, there would be scarcely no time left over for other things if school children will be expected to have been considering all sides of every matter on which they had opinions Q93. The most appropriate title for this passage is Read the passage and answer the question based on it.Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, aprocess or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, atminimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequateunderstanding of risk can destroy businesses.The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indianfirms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature ofgrowth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment ofrisk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wagesrocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves asworld-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, processand service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can wemake that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products andservices that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requiresunderstanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understandingfactors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive thecompetencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses tomanage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In acommoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendlyproduct. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not tomention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all theleading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, incontrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, hasmay dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, indifficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize anopportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sourdeals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. Andcorporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment makerproduces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequencesof this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational riskincreases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of themcould do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seekopportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks. A) Business Strategies for the Future B) Effect of Recession on Businesses C) Balancing Risk & Opportunity in Business D) Identifying Businesses for the “Emerging Customers” Q94. “Risk needs to be understood in its totality.” Which of the following relevant risk factor/s is/are discussed by the author in this passage? Read the passage and answer the question based on itBusiness is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, aprocess or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, atminimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequateunderstanding of risk can destroy businesses.The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indianfirms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature ofgrowth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment ofrisk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wagesrocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves asworld-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, processand service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can wemake that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products andservices that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requiresunderstanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understandingfactors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive thecompetencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses tomanage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In acommoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendlyproduct. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not tomention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all theleading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, incontrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, hasmay dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, indifficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize anopportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sourdeals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. Andcorporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment makerproduces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequencesof this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational riskincreases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of themcould do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seekopportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks.I. Strategic Risk II. Operational Risk III. Recession A) I and II B) II only C) I only D) I, II and III Q95. The best example of leveraging a business opportunity, as implied in the passage, is Read the passage and answer the question based on it.Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, aprocess or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, atminimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequateunderstanding of risk can destroy businesses.The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indianfirms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature ofgrowth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment ofrisk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wagesrocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves asworld-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, processand service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can wemake that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products andservices that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requiresunderstanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understandingfactors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive thecompetencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses tomanage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In acommoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendlyproduct. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not tomention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all theleading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, incontrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, hasmay dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, indifficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize anopportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sourdeals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. Andcorporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment makerproduces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequencesof this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational riskincreases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of themcould do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seekopportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks. A) garment industry B) retail revolution C) real estate D) iPhone Q96. “In contrast, all the leading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone.” What does this sentence imply? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, aprocess or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, atminimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequateunderstanding of risk can destroy businesses.The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indianfirms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature ofgrowth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment ofrisk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wagesrocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves asworld-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, processand service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can wemake that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products andservices that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requiresunderstanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understandingfactors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive thecompetencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses tomanage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In acommoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendlyproduct. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not tomention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all theleading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, incontrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, hasmay dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, indifficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize anopportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sourdeals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. Andcorporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment makerproduces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequencesof this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational riskincreases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of themcould do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seekopportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks. A) Many leading music companies of yesteryears are offering catchy tunes for iPhones B) All the leading competitors of Apple are trying to catch-up with the latter by launching their own versions of the iPhone C) Several retired sports people are now using iPhones to listen to catchy music D) no one was eager to face the competition Q97. Which of the following is not true in the context of this passage? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.Business is a fine balance between opportunity and risk. In an ideal world the entrepreneur identifies a new opportunity, a product, aprocess or a service that would increase user satisfaction. Successful businesses identify opportunities early, and ride a wave, atminimum risk, to deliver sustained growth and profitability. Bad or incomplete identification of an opportunity or an inadequateunderstanding of risk can destroy businesses.The last 18 months have seen a significant number of businesses destroyed all over the world. Opportunities available to Indianfirms eight months ago are now history; risk has increased manifold. The high growth environment and the go-go nature ofgrowth in the last decade trivialized the need for a systematic, identification of opportunity and a comprehensive assessment ofrisk. The pie was so big and growing so quickly, that almost anything made sense and money. Indian firms expanded capacity,market footprint, acquired firms in high-cost regimes, increased exports as a component of the sales and profit, salaries and wagesrocketed and there was an opportunity for every stakeholder at seemingly no risk. All and sundry began to think of themselves asworld-beaters. Now that they have been beaten by the world it is time to reset the approach to avoid a Ctrl-Alt-Del situation.Identifying and seizing opportunities requires a profound understanding of markets and customer expectations. Product, processand service have to be tailored to the ‘emerging’ customer need rather than the current need. The new paradigm is: What can wemake that you want to buy as against – we have a product you have to buy! Indian corporates need to develop products andservices that are needed around unmet needs of customers and go out and market, rather than sell them. This requiresunderstanding market reality, shifts and drivers on an ongoing continuous basis. Indian firms need to invest in understandingfactors critical to their success – the physical, political, economic, social, technology and trade frameworks that will drive thecompetencies they need to acquire to leverage an opportunity.This requires a realistic estimate of the value chains that deliver results at least risk and their own strengths and weaknesses tomanage and mitigate the risks while making the most of the opportunity. The iPhone is an excellent example of this approach. In acommoditising market Apple identified the needs that users, young, old and mid-aged, wanted and produced a user-friendlyproduct. The factor critical to its success is its ease of connectivity, high-speed download off the Internet and elegant looks, not tomention superb feature list. The least concern for the user is the phone attributes, which, in any case, are good! In contrast, all theleading players of two years ago are now playing catch-up with iPhone, which incidentally, offers a limited range of models, incontrast to the dizzying array and colours from other phone-makers! A good risk reduction exercise.Risk needs to be understood in its totality. Risk, defined as the possibility that events may not turn out as planned or expected, hasmay dimensions to it, much of it ignored in a high growth era, and all of which become relevant and rear up when least desired, indifficult times. The primary risk Indian corporates need to contend with is strategic risk – the ability to identify and seize anopportunity and allot resources to ensure delivery. It is sad to see the ‘retail revolution’ leaders of mid-2008, languishing in sourdeals. The closure of 20 per cent of these ‘modern format stores’ is a telling commentary on the poor assessment of strategic risk.Minimizing strategic risk increases the competitiveness of the firm.The second major risk facing Indian corporate is operational risk; Indian productivity remains way behind global standards. Andcorporates have not even begun addressing them. The garment industry is a case in point. On average, an Indian garment makerproduces 7 – 10 garments per machine per day. The world standard is 23 – 25! No wage differential can mask the harmful consequencesof this depth of under-performance. Remove the subsidies and the garment industry will sink like a stone. Reducing operational riskincreases asset and resource productivity. Capacity utilization is a good mitigator of operational and strategic risk; and both of themcould do with significant streamlining. With increasing profitability Indian firms have been diversifying – a nice, but risky way, to seekopportunities. Real estate is littered with firms which saw ‘opportunity’, created land banks and are now sitting ducks. A) In a high growth area, businesses tend to ignore risk B) Diversification is a nice way to seek opportunities, without risk C) About a fifth of the “modern format stores” have shut down because of their poor assessment of strategic risk D) ‘Marketing’, and not ‘Selling’ is the new way to do business Q98. Keeping in mind the ______ to develop the sector the government has ____ solicited foreign investment. The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole A) Importance, never B) Proposal, forcibly C) Objective, prudently D) View, discretely Q99. G-20 group of nations Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIThe G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’seconomic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met havereturned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economicgrowth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient AtharvaVeda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for twodecades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and otherEuropean cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion anddisillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with atranquil mind.In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing worldeconomy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, itseems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize thecurrent one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in thecurrent situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, likeAsia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarilyfrom the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What waspeddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,spoiled brats and marital strife.The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are alsounable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to beshredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result theeconomy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is afairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together andattach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the manwho has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man couldsomehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap andbeing slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve theproblem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fatcats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Unioncountries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effortto encourage them to leave.After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaksand Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germanyand Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Oncethe global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewherein Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds oftricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that isrotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at theservice of people, and not the other way round.I. Accounts for 66% of the world’s populationII. Comprises the world’s most powerful economiesIII. Accounts for 80% of the world trade A) I and III B) II and III C) I only D) I, II and III Q100. In the context of this passage, the phrase “Joe, the plumber” refers to Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIThe G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’seconomic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met havereturned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economicgrowth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient AtharvaVeda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for twodecades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and otherEuropean cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion anddisillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with atranquil mind.In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing worldeconomy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, itseems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize thecurrent one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in thecurrent situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, likeAsia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarilyfrom the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What waspeddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,spoiled brats and marital strife.The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are alsounable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to beshredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result theeconomy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is afairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together andattach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the manwho has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man couldsomehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap andbeing slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve theproblem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fatcats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Unioncountries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effortto encourage them to leave.After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaksand Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germanyand Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Oncethe global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewherein Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds oftricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that isrotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at theservice of people, and not the other way round. A) The plumbing community in general B) The less educated EU citizen C) The average American citizen D) None of these Q101. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIThe G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’seconomic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met havereturned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economicgrowth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient AtharvaVeda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for twodecades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and otherEuropean cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion anddisillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with atranquil mind.In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing worldeconomy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, itseems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize thecurrent one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in thecurrent situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, likeAsia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarilyfrom the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What waspeddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,spoiled brats and marital strife.The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are alsounable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to beshredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result theeconomy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is afairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together andattach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the manwho has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man couldsomehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap andbeing slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve theproblem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fatcats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Unioncountries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effortto encourage them to leave.After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaksand Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germanyand Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Oncethe global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewherein Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds oftricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that isrotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at theservice of people, and not the other way round.I. G-20 leaders got drunk at the Summit.II. The G-20 leaders were in high spirits assuming they have found the solution for the current economic crisis.III. The European crowds outside the G-20 Summit venue marched through the streets of Berlin, etc., in celebrations. A) I and II B) II only C) I only D) II and III Q102. Almost all the world leaders at the recent G-20 Summit Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIThe G-20 group of nations is made up of the world’s most powerful economies – accounting for 90 per cent of the world’seconomic output, 80 per cent of world trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. Now that the leaders who met havereturned home, in high spirits, believing they have found a common ground over the key issues of financial regulation, economicgrowth, strengthening the global financial architecture and helping the world’s poorest, I am reminded of the ancient AtharvaVeda samhita ‘Indrah somam pibatu ksemo astu na’. Meaning “As long as Lord Indra is drunk with soma juice, I am in high spirits.”The only real voices I heard articulating the will of Europeans were in the crowds outside the G-20. I have lived in Europe for twodecades and, never before have I seen tens of thousands of Europeans who marched through Berlin, Vienna, Paris and otherEuropean cities to demand action on poverty, job losses and climate change. And, their mood was of exhaustion anddisillusionment. When the celebrations have died down, it will be easier to look at what actually happened in London with atranquil mind.In my view, the summit participants took the easy way out. Their decision to pump a further $5 trillion into the collapsing worldeconomy within the foreseeable future could indeed prove to be the undesirable Hobson’s choice. In combating this crisis, itseems to me that the international community is in fact setting the foundation for a consequent crisis, which will outsize thecurrent one. Miserably, at the summit, the crucial questions went unanswered because they weren’t even asked. Why are we in thecurrent situation anyway? Who or what has gotten us into this mess? The EU counts on exports as a stimulus to the economy, likeAsia, something the US abandoned long ago. Though the sub-prime rage infected Europe too, its financial woes shoot primarilyfrom the US, with its unbridled consumerism and wars, and will never be solved until the US puts its house in order. What waspeddled even a year ago as a joyous community, a big happy family, is now a dysfunctional one, complete with sibling rivalry,spoiled brats and marital strife.The number that has been bandied about is beyond the comprehension of “Joe, the plumber”. Almost all world leaders are alsounable to figure out the enormity of the global debt-quicksand. There have been suggestions that if all these papers were to beshredded and the debts written off, the global banks’ balance sheets would be wiped clean of such toxic assets. As a result theeconomy would restart and the good old days of cheap credit and unrestrained consumption would usher another boom. This is afairy tale. In the old days, when hoodlums wanted to make someone disappear for good, they would tie his legs together andattach the rope to a heavy object and throw the poor fellow into a lake or sea. The current financial system is not unlike the manwho has been thrown overboard and being dragged down by the heavy object. The only chance for survival is if the man couldsomehow loosen the rope and detach the weight from his legs and swim to the surface.In short, the farmers, like all the millions of gamblers who have been ensnared by the global casino, are now in the debt trap andbeing slowly dragged down to the bottom of the lake. Therefore, pumping hundreds of billions into the banks will not solve theproblem. When millions are caught in the debt trap and there is no way out, and they see billions been given to the Wall Street fatcats, lynching parties will be the order of the day. The countdown has started. With unemployment soaring many European Unioncountries want the migrant workers they once attracted, to go home as quickly as possible. They are sparing no expense or effortto encourage them to leave.After the European Union’s eastward expansion in 2004, tens of thousands of Asians found jobs in Polish, Czech and Slovak factories,where they were welcomed with open arms to fill the jobs that one million Poles and hundreds of thousands of Czechs, Balts, Slovaksand Hungarians had left behind when they migrated to the wealthier EU countries. Ireland, Great Britain and Sweden, unlike Germanyand Austria, had immediately opened their borders to citizens of the new Member States, and Spain followed suit two years later. Oncethe global economic crisis erupted, those days were over. Unemployment has risen twice as fast in Great Britain and Spain as elsewherein Europe. Now the citizens of Western European countries need the jobs themselves, and their Governments are resorting to all kinds oftricks and incentives to get rid of the hands they once needed so badly. The G-20 has just put a fresh coat of paint on a world that isrotting. Only a strong popular call-up will make it possible to lay solid foundations to build another world, in which finance is at theservice of people, and not the other way round.I. need to settle down and analyse the events at the summit with a composed mind.II. took the easy way out of finding a solution to the economic crisis, by deciding to pump in huge funds into the economy.III. couldn’t even perceive the real questions to be answered. A) III B) II and III C) I and II D) All these Q103. What is the most appropriate title for the passage? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIIOver 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy wouldbecome vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fairelections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another towin votes.Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminalcharges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty ofoffence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon toprotect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person ispresumed innocent unless found guilty.However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right tocontest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on thebasis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which anaccused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfyhimself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed tothe Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing ofcharges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of theoffence. He would then be discharged.Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, beincorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contestingelections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Actwill have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would standdisqualified.However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualificationshould apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get adischarge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the SupremeCourt in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time offiling of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years orotherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospectivecandidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess anclean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that nocandidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a convictioneven for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. Inanother case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer anappeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. Thiswould mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial courtare unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal wouldoperate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, theSupreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and acandidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to besound. A) Politics of Democracy B) Criminalisation of Politics C) Re-democratising the Electoral System D) Judiciary’s Role in Elections Q104. Which of the following is not true as explained in the passage? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIIOver 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy wouldbecome vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fairelections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another towin votes.Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminalcharges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty ofoffence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon toprotect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person ispresumed innocent unless found guilty.However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right tocontest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on thebasis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which anaccused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfyhimself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed tothe Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing ofcharges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of theoffence. He would then be discharged.Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, beincorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contestingelections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Actwill have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would standdisqualified.However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualificationshould apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get adischarge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the SupremeCourt in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time offiling of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years orotherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospectivecandidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess anclean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that nocandidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a convictioneven for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. Inanother case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer anappeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. Thiswould mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial courtare unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal wouldoperate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, theSupreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and acandidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to besound. A) The Supreme Court feels that a legislator must be given special dispensation in contrast to other candidates B) Contesting an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly is a fundamental right as per the Constitution of India C) Political parties rope-in even criminals to support them, in order to win votes D) An independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fair elections are all pillars of democracy Q105. The RP Act requires a conviction of how many years minimum, to disqualify a candidate from contesting? Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIIOver 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy wouldbecome vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fairelections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another towin votes.Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminalcharges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty ofoffence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon toprotect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person ispresumed innocent unless found guilty.However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right tocontest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on thebasis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which anaccused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfyhimself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed tothe Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing ofcharges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of theoffence. He would then be discharged.Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, beincorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contestingelections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Actwill have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would standdisqualified.However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualificationshould apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get adischarge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the SupremeCourt in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time offiling of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years orotherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospectivecandidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess anclean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that nocandidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a convictioneven for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. Inanother case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer anappeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. Thiswould mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial courtare unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal wouldoperate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, theSupreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and acandidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to besound. A) 3 years B) 4 years C) 5 years D) 2 years Q106. In this passage the author suggests that it would be in the fitness of things if Read the passage and answer the question based on it.PASSAGE IIIOver 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy wouldbecome vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fairelections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another towin votes.Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminalcharges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty ofoffence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon toprotect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person ispresumed innocent unless found guilty.However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right tocontest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on thebasis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which anaccused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfyhimself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed tothe Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing ofcharges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of theoffence. He would then be discharged.Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, beincorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contestingelections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Actwill have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would standdisqualified.However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualificationshould apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get adischarge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the SupremeCourt in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time offiling of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years orotherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospectivecandidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess anclean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that nocandidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a convictioneven for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. Inanother case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer anappeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. Thiswould mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial courtare unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal wouldoperate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, theSupreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and acandidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to besound. A) Political parties verify the police records of all ticket-seekers in order to ascertain deserving candidates B) Political parties give tickets only to those candidates who have a clean record C) Criminals voluntarily refrain from participating in elections D) All these Q107. Which of the following is true? Read the passage and answer the question that follows.PASSAGE IIIOver 60 years have passed since India got its independence. With the passage of time, one hoped, Indian democracy wouldbecome vibrant and strong. There are many pillars of democracy, including an independent judiciary, a free press, and free and fairelections. We have the first two intact to a great extent, but not the third. We are on the threshold of a new round of elections – the15th general election to the Lok Sabha and Assembly election in three States – and political parties are vying with one another towin votes.Most reprehensibly, efforts are made to acquire the support of criminals. In the 14th Lok Sabha, as many as 93 MPs had criminalcharges pending against them. Their trial proceedings have not attained finality. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP)Act, 1951 requires a conviction for a period of over two years to disqualify a candidate from contesting. If he is found guilty ofoffence under special laws, he would stand disqualified irrespective of the period of sentence. The principle that is relied upon toprotect the candidate from disqualification when serious charges are pending is that of criminal jurisprudence – that a person ispresumed innocent unless found guilty.However, this is only for the purpose of preventing punishment by way of incarceration or fine. There is no fundamental right tocontest an election to Parliament or a Legislative Assembly. A statute can take away the right of such a person to contest, on thebasis of the higher principle of maintaining the purity of elections. Under criminal law, there are at least three stages at which anaccused can be relieved of charges. A magistrate trying an offence has first to take cognizance of the charge sheet and then satisfyhimself that prima facie an offence has been made out, after applying his mind to the statements and the documents annexed tothe Police Report. The case could be closed at this stage. Thereafter the accused has an opportunity at the time of framing ofcharges to show that no prima facie as is made out or that no reasonable grounds exist to suspect him of the commission of theoffence. He would then be discharged.Lastly, an accused could seek quashing of charges under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It would, therefore, beincorrect to apply the presumption of innocence, in a wooden fashion, to the issue of disqualification of a candidate contestingelections without taking note of the damage that otherwise would be caused to the democratic process. Section 8 of the RP Actwill have to be amended so that a person against whom charges have been framed by a court for an offence mentioned in Section8(1), or a person who is charged with an offence which carries a sentence of imprisonment of more than two years, would standdisqualified.However, it is only in a case where the charge sheet has been filed a year prior to the notification of elections that disqualificationshould apply. Otherwise a rival could easily file a false case and have a charge sheet framed, leaving no time for the accused to get adischarge or have the charge sheet set aside. In the absence of such an amendment to Section 8 of the RP Act, the SupremeCourt in 2002 delivered a judgment in Association of Democratic Reforms, requiring every candidate to disclose, at the time offiling of nomination, any charges pending against him for offences that may involve punishment for a period above two years orotherwise. It will be a great day for India if, instead of an amendment to the RP Act, every party obtains from prospectivecandidates statement of the pending criminal cases against them and allots the ticket only to such among them who possess anclean record. Perhaps Section 29-A should be amended to incorporate in the Constitution and objectives of all parties that nocandidate with criminal charges pending against him would be allotted the ticket.The RP Act has applied a different yardstick in the case of one who is convicted while being an MP or MLA. In such a case, a convictioneven for one of the serious offences mentioned in Section 8, or for a period exceeding two years, will not cause disqualification. Inanother case concerning a candidate in an election, the Supreme Court has held that not only would such candidate have to prefer anappeal or revision petition, but he would have to get a stay on the sentence and of the conviction, to prevent disqualification. Thiswould mean the candidate would have to establish before the appellate court that the findings rendered against him by the trial courtare unjustified or perverse. In the case of a sitting legislator, however, by reason of Section 8(4), the mere filing of an appeal wouldoperate as a stay of disqualification, even if bail was refused and he obtained neither stay of conviction nor a stay of sentence,obviously, this would seem to be discriminatory and violative of the equality clause in Article 14 of the Constitution. Unfortunately, theSupreme Court appears to feel differently about the allegation of discrimination brought about between a sitting legislator and acandidate. The reasons it gives in Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan for why a legislator must be given special dispensation do not appear to besound. A) Under criminal law there are only three stages at which an accused can be relieved of charges B) Criminal jurisprudence means a person is considered innocent unless proved to be guilty C) A sitting legislator cannot contest elections if a criminal case is pending against him D) All these Q108. Which of the above statements is/are true? Answer the question that follows.Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropicalplains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequatedrainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants ofhigh yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts isless as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from provenmother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing andland leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. Aspacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up withadequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Dripirrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities ofwater and energy.In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained togrow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should bedone when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuringshould be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, andwatered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrientdeficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and otherbotanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application aftermonitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improvethe fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though thefruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurturedgrown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid limegarden.It can be inferred from the passage thatI. the quality and size of fruits depend upon the longevity of the plants.II. the yield of grafts is less as compared to the trees developed from the seeds.III. there is not much of a difference between grafts and the trees developed from the seeds, except in life. A) Only III B) Only II C) I and II D) I, II and III Q109. For a good growth of acid-lime crop, all of the following are essential except Answer the question that follows.Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropicalplains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequatedrainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants ofhigh yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts isless as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from provenmother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing andland leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. Aspacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up withadequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Dripirrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities ofwater and energy.In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained togrow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should bedone when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuringshould be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, andwatered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrientdeficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and otherbotanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application aftermonitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improvethe fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though thefruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurturedgrown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid limegarden. A) water-logged tropical plains B) good irrigation with adequate drainage C) rich residues of organic nutrients D) hill slopes with poor water resources Q110. The author of the passage could be Answer the question that follows.Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropicalplains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequatedrainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants ofhigh yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts isless as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from provenmother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing andland leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. Aspacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up withadequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Dripirrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities ofwater and energy.In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained togrow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should bedone when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuringshould be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, andwatered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrientdeficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and otherbotanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application aftermonitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improvethe fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though thefruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurturedgrown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid limegarden. A) an agricultural activist B) an agricultural expert C) a farmer D) an analyst Q111. According to the passage, the acid lime Answer the question that follows.Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropicalplains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequatedrainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants ofhigh yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts isless as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from provenmother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing andland leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. Aspacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up withadequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Dripirrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities ofwater and energy.In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained togrow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should bedone when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuringshould be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, andwatered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrientdeficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and otherbotanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application aftermonitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improvethe fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though thefruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurturedgrown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid limegarden. A) is the most prolific yielder among all fruits B) allows several annual crops like pulses to be grown throughout its lifetime C) allows farmers to realise about 25 lakhs from a 10 hectare of healthy and well-tended acid lime garden D) None of the above Q112. All of the following insecticides can be sprayed on acid-lime crop EXCEPT Answer the question that follows.Among the several citrus fruits, acid lime is one of the most prolific yielder, and this crop can be profitably grown in the tropicalplains and hill slopes with scant water resources. It comes up well in sandy loam rich in organic residues endowed with adequatedrainage. Good quality grafts are ideal for raising a healthy and productive lime garden. The grafts yield true-to-parent plants ofhigh yielding potential, and are early bearers. They also bear big fruits all through the year. However, the longevity of the grafts isless as compared with the trees developed from the seeds, according to experts. Seeds extracted from healthy fruits from provenmother plants will develop into robust plants with longer life.The main field should be thoroughly tilled, and ripe farmyard manure should be incorporated well with the final ploughing andland leveling. Green manuring will also help in increasing the soil’s organic matter content, and in improving the soil structure. Aspacing of 6 m by 6 m is recommended for raising acid lime plantation. Pits of 90 cm by 90 cm are to be dug, and filled up withadequate quantities of vermin-compost, coir-pith compost and small amounts of powdered neem cake and bio-fertilizers. About250 plants can be accommodated in a hectare. Regular irrigation is essential in the early stages of crop establishment. Dripirrigation, pitcher irrigation and micro-sprinklers have been found to give good results, besides saving considerable quantities ofwater and energy.In the initial months after planting, sufficient shade should be provided to protect the tender seedings and grafts from harsh sun.Planting Sesbania (agathi) around the young plants will be effective in ensuring the required shade, besides enriching the soil.Several annual crops such as pulses and vegetables, can be raised as intercrops in the initial years. The plants should be trained togrow vertically by discouraging the lateral shoots and other growths. Regular pruning to get the desired dome-shape should bedone when the plants are still young. The field should be kept free of weed and other unwanted vegetation. Regular manuringshould be done twice annually. The nutrients, mostly organic in nature, should be incorporated at the base of the plants, andwatered immediately. The plants particularly respond well to liberal application of organic amendments. The micro-nutrientdeficiencies will not be noticed in acid lime plantations raised with rich organic nutrients.Plants protection is an important aspect in acid lime cultivation. The plants should be sprayed with cow’s urine, vermin-wash and otherbotanical insecticides to ward off leaf-munching caterpillars and other sucking and chewing pests. Need-based application aftermonitoring the field for pest incidence will be rewarding. Spraying should be taken up at an interval of ten days, and it will also improvethe fruit setting and fruit development. The plants will establish well and start yielding from the second year of planting. Though thefruits can be had all round the year, some major flushes can be harvested in December-January and July-August seasons. A well nurturedgrown-up tree can yield as high as 3000 fruits a year. The profit for the growers depends on the season and the prevailing market rate.With an average price of Rs. 0.35 a fruit, a farmer can realize about Rs. 2.5 lakhs from a hectare of a healthy and well-tended acid limegarden. A) cow’s urine B) powered neem C) vermin-wash D) manure Q113. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A. The use of sovereign power poses difficult choices because whether it has been used sensibly or not can be determinedonly after the event.B. Faced with having to stimulate the economy in the sharpest and worst downturn since 1929, governments have respondedby cutting taxes and spending more.C. That has forced governments to borrow more but, when gorillas walk on Main Street, others have to make way.D. The idea of monetizing the fiscal deficit, which is gathering steam rather too quickly because the US has also decided to doso, is a good example of this.E. The former has, however, made the latter harder because how do you spend more when you are earning less? A) ABEDC B) BCDEA C) AECDB D) ADBEC Q114. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A. It is that time of the year when the election finds its way back to being the central topic of discussion.B. Unlike India, in other democracies, ranging from the US to Zimbabwe, if no candidate secures 51 per cent of the votes, thetop two would be up for a re-run; no doubt that this comes with additional costs and time.C. To elaborate, say there are three contestants in a constituency and each of them gets 40, 35 and 25 per cent of polled votesrespectively.D. Leaving aside the usual rhetoric, let us take up a relatively less discussed, nevertheless important, question : If more than 60per cent of the elected representatives in Parliament have less than 51 per cent of the polled votes, is our democracy reallyeffective?E. Are we optimizing taxpayers’ money at the cost of democracy? A) BDCAE B) DEBAC C) ADCBE D) CDEAB Q115. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A. Last March, I was invited to present a paper on the topic of whether the mistakes of the 20th century would be repeated inthe 21st century as well.B. The economic crisis hadn’t become grave then.C. But today the world is in the midst of the biggest economic crisis since 1929.D. The key difference between then and now is that the old power structures have finally disappeared.E. Now even the US is pleading for financial help from China. A) CDEAB B) ABCDE C) BCADE D) DEABC Q116. Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A. Jawaharlal Nehru, despite his heavy schedule both as a Prime Minister and as a freedom hero constantly in demand, madeit a point to reply to letters under his personal signature within a couple of days of receiving them.B. That was the time when, following the Chinese invasion of India in October 1962, the load on Nehru was near-unbearableand he was also in declining health.C. Even so, he replied to Ramanujam on the very day (April 9) the letter reached him, setting out in detail his approach.D. What a contrast are the following examples of political decency of bygone days with conditions obtaining today !E. On April 8, 1963 K.S. Ramanujam, a highly regarded journalist of Madras, wrote to him about the corrupt practices of Ministers,especially in the matter of collection of funds for elections. A) DAEBC B) CDEAB C) ABCDE D) BCDAE Q117. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the above argument? The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.Consumers are not so easily manipulated as they are often painted. They may know what they want, and what they want may be greatlydifferent from what other people believe they need. A) Most people continue to buy the same brand of a product year after year B) Companies that advertise the most sell the most products C) Store shelves packed with a variety of different brands have the potential to confuse the consumer D) People who shop with others rarely argue with their companions Q118. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the above argument? The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.Unfortunately, only 11 percent of the driving public uses regular seat belts. Automatic restraints are the answers, and the quicker they arerequired, the sooner highways deaths will be reduced. A) Only 11 percent of the driving public cares about passengers’ lives B) The use of restraints reduces highway deaths C) Regular seat belts are inadequate safety devices D) It is unfortunate that 89 percent of the driving public does not use regular seat belts Q119. Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most? The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security of senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offerMedicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditionalshelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a state faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So it isadvisable that the working population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself. A) India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country’s status, with all its positive and negative implications B) The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future C) The investable income of the working population as a proportion of its total income will grow in the future D) If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be revival of the joint family system Q120. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage? The following contains a paragraph followed by a question. As your answer select the best of the options given.Organizations are often defined as groups of people who come together to pursue a common goal. But more often than not, goalsdiverge as much as they converge, making the rationality of the overall organization no more than an elusive ideal. Beneath thecollective irrationality, however, organizations are often operating in a way that is eminently rational from the standpoint of theindividuals, groups and coalitions directly involved. A) As individuals, groups or coalitions in an organization pursue their own interest, the conceptual issues of rational behavior get blurred B) Although conceptually, an organization may appear to be irrational – behaviors of individuals, groups and coalitions in the organization may be rational C) If all employees of an organization pursue their individual goals, one can never have an organization that behaves rationally D) Since people are essentially irrational, the ideal of building a rational organization is elusive Q121. Krishan has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal heads are 59 and the total number of feet are 190, how many cows does Krishan have? Mark the best option A) 36 B) 32 C) 23 D) Cannot be determined Q122. Vanita bought a watch with 24% discount on the selling price. If the watch cost her Rs. 779/-, what was the original selling price of the watch? Mark the best option A) Rs. 1,000/- B) Rs. 950/- C) Rs. 1,025/- D) Cannot be determined Q123. The cost of 13 kg of sugar is Rs. 195/-. The cost of 17 kg. of rice is Rs. 544/- and the cost of 21 kg. of wheat is Rs. 336/-. What is the total cost of 21 kg of sugar, 26 kg of rice and 19 kg of wheat? Mark the best option A) Rs. 1,451/- B) Rs. 1,306/- C) Rs. 1,500/- D) Rs. 1,636/- Q124. The difference between 38% of a number and 24% of the same number is 135.10. What is 40% of that number? Mark the best option. A) 394 B) 370 C) 378 D) 386 Q125. Asmita invests an amount of Rs. 9,535/- at 4 % p.a. to obtain a total amount of Rs. 11,442/- on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to obtain the total sum? Mark the best option A) 10 years B) 2 years C) 5 years D) 4 years Q126. The sum of money is to be divided amongst A, B and C in the respective ratio of 3:4:5 and another sum of money is to be divided between E and F equally. If F got Rs. 1,050/- less than A, how much amount did B receive? Mark the best option A) Rs. 750/- B) Rs. 2,000/- C) Rs. 1,500/- D) Cannot be determined Q127. In an examination it is required to get 296 of the total maximum aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 259 marks and is declared failed. The difference of marks obtained by the student and that required to pass is 5%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get? Mark the best option A) 690 B) 780 C) 740 D) Cannot be determined Q128. The price of sugar is increased by 25%.Find by how much percent the consumption of sugar be decreased so as not to increase the expenditure? Mark the best option A) 25% B) 40% C) 20% D) 30% Q129. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 41. What is the product of A & E? Mark the best option A) 1677 B) 1517 C) 1665 D) 1591 Q130. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 2 : 1 respectively. What is the daughter’s age? Mark the best option A) 28 years B) 48 years C) 52 years D) 32 years Q131. A car travels a distance of 45 km at the speed of 15 km/hr. It covers the next 50 km of its journey at the speed of 25km/hr and the last 25 km of its journey at the speed of 15 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car? Mark the best option A) 40 km/hr B) 24 km/hr C) 15 km/hr D) 18 km/hr Q132. A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 18 less, he would have gained 25%. The cost price of the book is Mark the best option A) Rs. 80 B) Rs. 70 C) Rs. 60 D) Rs. 90 Q133. A car travels a distance of 170 km in 2 hours partly at a speed of 100 km/h and partly at 50 km/h. The distance travelled at a speed of 50 km/h is A) 50 km B) 40 km C) 30 km D) 60 km Q134. A train is scheduled to cover the distance between two stations 46 km apart in one hour. If it travels 25 km at a speed of 40 km/h, find the speed for the remaining journey to complete it in the scheduled time. A) 66 km/h B) 56 km/h C) 46 km/h D) 36 km/h Q135. In a 400 metres race, A gives B a start of 5 seconds and beats him by 15 metres. In another race of 400 metres, A beats B by 7 1/7 seconds. Their speeds are A) 6 m/s, 7 m/s respectively B) 5 m/s, 7 m/s respectively C) 8 m/s, 7 m/s respectively D) 9 m/s, 7 m/s respectively Q136. A cube of side 4 units is painted red on two opposite faces, black on two opposite faces, and green and black on the two remaining faces. If it is cut into 64 equal cubes, then how many cubes will have exactly one black coloured face and remaining 5 unpainted faces? A) 12 B) 16 C) 32 D) 8 Q137. A toy cube is painted orange on all sides. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller cubes are not painted at all? A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 20 Q138. What should be subtracted from 15, 28, 20 and 38 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional? A) 6 B) 4 C) 2 D) None of these Q139. The incomes of Gupta and Verma are in the ratio 9 : 4 and their expenditures are in the ratio 7 : 3. If each saves Rs.2000, then Gupta’s expenditure is A) Rs. 70,000 B) Rs. 80,000 C) Rs. 60,000 D) None of these Q140. There are 6 multiple choice questions in an examination. How many sequences of answers are possible, if the first three questions have 4 choices each and the next three have 5 each? A) 4000 B) 5000 C) 6000 D) 8000 Q141. A number lock on a suitcase has 3 wheels, each labelled with 10 digits from 0 to 9. If opening of the lock is a particular sequence of three digits with no repeats, how many such sequences will be possible? A) 680 B) 760 C) 720 D) 780 Q142. Eight students are participating in a race. In how many ways can the first three prizes be won? A) 304 B) 720 C) 504 D) 336 Q143. A rectangular farm has to be fenced on one long side, one short side and the diagonal. If the cost of fencing is Rs. 100 per m, the area of the farm is 1200 m2 and the short side is 30 m long, how much would the job cost? A) Rs. 14,000 B) Rs. 12,000 C) Rs. 7000 D) Rs. 15,000 Q144. Length of a rectangular blackboard is 8 m more than that of its breadth. If its length is increased by 7 m and its breadth is decreased by 4 m, its area remains unchanged. The length and breadth of the rectangular blackboard is A) 24 m, 16 m B) 20 m, 24 m C) 28 m, 20 m D) 28 m, 16 m Q145. One test tube contains some acid and another test tube contains an equal quantity of water. To prepare a solution, 20 grams of the acid is poured into the second test tube. Then, two-thirds of the so-formed solution is poured from the second tube into the first. If the fluid in the first test tube is four times that in the second, what quantity of water was taken initially? A) 80 grams B) 60 grams C) 40 grams D) None of these Q146. The average age of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of the father and the eldest child. The total age of the mother and the youngest child is 39 years. If the father’s age is 26 years, what is the age of the second child? A) 20 years B) 18 years C) 15 years D) Cannot be determined Q147. A man buys a house for Rs. 5 lakhs and rents it. He puts 12 .5 % of each month's rent aside for repairs, pays Rs. 1660 as annual taxes and realizes 10% on his investments thereafter. The monthly rent of the house is A) Rs. 4920 B) Rs. 2500 C) Rs. 2460 D) Rs. 5000 Q148. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5% and the remainder at a loss of 2%. If the total profit was Rs. 400, the value of the consignment was A) Rs. 15,000 B) Rs. 12,000 C) Rs. 10,000 D) Rs. 20,000 Q149. Two shopkeepers announce the same price of Rs. 700 for a shirt. The first offers successive discounts of 30% and 6% while the second offers successive discounts of 20% and 16%. The shopkeeper that offers better discount, charges less than the other shopkeeper. A) Rs. 22.40 B) Rs. 16.80 C) Rs. 9.80 D) Rs. 36.40 Q150. Even after reducing the marked price of a transistor by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. If the cost price be Rs. 320, what percentage of profit would he have made if he had sold the transistor at the marked price? A) 25% B) 20% C) 10% D) 15% Q151. A train started from station ‘A’ and proceeded towards station ‘B’ at a speed of 48 km/hr. Forty-five minutes later another train started from station ‘B’ and proceeded towards station ‘A’ at 50 km/hr. If the distance between the two stations is 232 km, at what distance from station ‘A’ will the trains meet? A) 108 km B) 144 km C) 132 km D) None of these Q152. A cylindrical tub of radius 12 cm contains water up to a depth of 20 cm. A spherical iron ball is dropped into the tub and thus the level of water is raised by 6.75 cm. The radius of the ball is A) 7.25 cm B) 6 cm C) 4.5 cm D) 9 cm Q153. A spherical ball of lead, 3 cm in diameter is melted and recast into three spherical balls. The diameter of two of these are 1.5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The diameter of the third ball is A) 3 cm B) 2.66 cm C) 2.5 cm D) 3.5 cm Q154. A runs 1 2/3 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B might reach it at the same time? A) 270 m B) 300 m C) 200 m D) 160 m Q155. There are two bags, one of which contains 3 black and 4 white balls, while the other contains 4 black and 3 white balls. A dice is cast; if the face 1 or 3 turns up, a ball is taken from the first bag and if any other face turns up a ball is chosen from the second bag. The probability of choosing a black ball is A) 12/21 B) 11/21 C) 10/21 D) 9/21 Q156. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B hits 3 times in 4 shots, and C hits twice in 3 shots. They fire together. The probability that at least two shots hit the target is A) 5/6 B) (1/3)2 C) 13/30 D) None of these Q157. A cistern, open at the top, is to be lined with sheet lead which weighs 27 kg/m2. The cistern is 4.5 m long and 3 m wide and holds 50 m3. The weight of lead required is A) 1660.62 kg B) 1764.60 kg C) 1864.50 kg D) 1860.62 kg Q158. A hemispherical bowl is 176 cm round the brim. Supposing it to be half full, how many persons may be served from it in hemispherical glasses 4 cm in diameter at the top? A) 1372 B) 1272 C) 1172 D) 1472 Q159. A balloon leaves the earth at point A and rises at a uniform velocity. At the end of 1 1/2 min an observer situated at a distance of 200 m from A finds the angular elevation of the balloon to be 60°. The speed of the balloon is ° A) 5.87 m/s B) 4.87 m/s C) 3.87 m/s D) 6.87 m/s Q160. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45°. After ascending one kilometer towards the mountain upon an incline of 30°, the elevation changes to 60°. The height of the mountain is A) 1.366 km B) 1.266 km C) 1.166 km D) 1.466 km Q161. A sum of Rs. 25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12 days and D in 24 days. How much did C receive if all the four work together? A) Rs. 15/3 B) Rs. 14/3 C) Rs. 13/3 D) Rs. 16/3 Q162. A job can be done by 3 skilled workmen in 20 days or by 5 boys in 30 days. How many days will they take if all of them work together? A) 11 days B) 10 days C) 8 days D) 12 days Q163. A cistern can be filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 min respectively. Both pipes are opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7/8 of full quantity water flows through the former and only 5/6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however, being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 min from that moment. How long was it before the full flow began? A) 4.5 min B) 2.5 min C) 3.5 min D) 5.5 min Q164. Choose the correct option: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.Statement:Black cloud follows thunder; rains follow thunder.Conclusions:I. Thunder is the cause of rainII. Black cloud is the cause of thunder. A) If neither conclusion I nor II follows B) If only conclusion II follows C) If only conclusion I follows D) If both conclusions I and II follow Q165. Choose the correct option: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.Statement:Workers feel highly motivated when they get a sense of involvement by participating in the management of companies.Conclusions:I. Workers should be motivated to produce more.II. Workers should be allowed to participate in the management of companies. A) If neither conclusion I nor II follows B) If only conclusion II follows C) If only conclusion I follows D) If both conclusions I and II follow Q166. Choose the correct option: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.Statement:Power consumption in every family has doubled during the last five years.Conclusions:I. There is a lot of development in the society.II. Power rates have become cheaper. A) If neither conclusion I nor II follows B) If only conclusion II follows C) If only conclusion I follows D) If both conclusions I and II follow Q167. Choose the correct option: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.Statement:This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.Conclusions:I. Some people find this world quite good.II. Some people find this world quite bad. A) If neither conclusion I nor II follows B) If only conclusion II follows C) If only conclusion I follows D) If both conclusions I and II follow Q168. Choose the correct option: The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.Statement :Incentives must be given to strengthen the motivation of employees.Assumptions :I. Incentives are expected to motivate employees.II. Employees at present are not motivated. A) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit B) If only assumption II is implicit C) If only assumption I is implicit D) If both assumptions I and II are implicit Q169. Choose the correct option: The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.Statement :Despite heavy rains traffic has not been disturbed.Assumptions :I. Rains do not affect traffic movement.II. Adequate precautions were taken for traffic management during rainy season. A) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit B) If only assumption II is implicit C) If only assumption I is implicit D) If both assumptions I and II are implicit Q170. Choose the correct option: The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.Statement :The government, through a notification, has banned smoking in public places.Assumptions :I. People should abide by the notification.II. The message in the notification will reach the general public. A) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit B) If only assumption II is implicit C) If only assumption I is implicit D) If both assumptions I and II are implicit Q171. Choose the correct option: The following question has a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.Statement :“Wanted a two bedroom-hall-kitchen flat in the college area” – an advertisement.Assumptions :I. Landlords generally respond to such advertisements.II. Flats may be available in the college area. A) If neither assumption I nor II is implicit B) If only assumption II is implicit C) If only assumption I is implicit D) If both assumptions I and II are implicit Q172. Choose the correct option: There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Should religion be taught in our schools?Arguments:I. Yes, do the parents not wish to develop their wards into mature individuals?II. No, how can one dream of such a step when we want the young generation to fulfil its role. A) If neither argument I nor II is strong B) If only argument II is strong C) If only argument I is strong D) If both arguments I and II are strong Q173. Choose the correct option: There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Should family planning be made compulsory in India?Arguments:I. Yes, looking at the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.II. No, in India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of some of the religions. A) If neither argument I nor II is strong B) If only argument II is strong C) If only argument I is strong D) If both arguments I and II are strong Q174. Choose the correct option: There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Should judiciary be independent of the executive?Arguments:I. Yes. This would help curb the unlawful activities of the executive.II. No. The executive would not be able to take bold measures. A) If neither argument I nor II is strong B) If only argument II is strong C) If only argument I is strong D) If both arguments I and II are strong Q175. Choose the correct option: There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Should open book systems be introduced in examinations?Arguments:I. Yes, because it will avoid mass copying.II. No, because then all students will get 100% marks. A) If neither argument I nor II is strong B) If only argument II is strong C) If only argument I is strong D) If both arguments I and II are strong Q176. Ajay is the brother of Vijay. Mili is the sister of Ajay. Sanjay is the brother of Rahul and Mehul is the daughter of Vijay. Who is Sanjay’s uncle? A) Data inadequate B) Mehul C) Rahul D) Vijay Q177. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter, what is the relationship between Amit and Billoo? A) Father – Son B) Father – Daughter C) Uncle – Nephew D) Cousins Q178. Meera is daughter of Mahender. Mala, Achla’s sister has a son Mohan and daughter Sushila. Kamla is maternal aunt of Sushila and mother of Krishna. Mohan is cousin of Krishna. Krishna is sister of Meera. How is Achla related to Mahender? A) Niece B) Sister-in-law C) Cousin D) Daughter Q179. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the immediate right of B and E is to the immediate left of C and right of A, and B is to the right of D. Which of the house is in the middle? A) D B) A C) B D) E Q180. If the alphabet series is written in the manner AZBYCX …. and so on, what will be the fifth letter to the right of fifteenth letter from the left? A) S B) J C) P D) Q Q181. P, Q, R and S walk diagonally to opposite corners and from there Q and R walk one and a half sides anti-clockwise while P and S walk one side clockwise along the sides. Where is S now? A) At the South-West corner B) At the North-East corner C) At the North-West corner D) None of these Q182. Q travelled straight to R, a distance of 10 km. He turned right and walked 7 km towards S. Again he turned right and walked 8 km, and then finally turned right and walked 7 km. How far is he from his original position? A) 2 km B) 8 km C) 7 km D) 3 km Q183. P and S walk one and a half lengths of the side clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. Which one of the following statements is true? A) P and S are both at the midpoint between Q & R B) P and S are at the midpoints between R & S and Q & R respectively C) P is at midpoint between Q & R and S is at the corner originally occupied by P D) S is at the midpoint between Q & R and P is at the midpoint between the original side of R & S Q184. P, Q, R and S walk one and a half sides clockwise. Who is on the left of Q, if he is facing West? A) S B) R C) P D) None of these Q185. What was the colour combination of D’s shirt and short? Read the following information to answer the question.Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and greencolours.Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.A wore white short and pink shirt.E did not wear red shirt. A) Blue and grey B) Red and blue C) Green and black D) Blue and white Q186. Who wore white short? Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and greencolours.Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.A wore white short and pink shirt.E did not wear red shirt. A) B B) A C) E D) Data inadequate Q187. Which colour shirt did C wear? Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and greencolours.Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.A wore white short and pink shirt.E did not wear red shirt. A) Green B) Blue C) Yellow D) Pink Q188. Which colour short did B wear? Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red and blue colours and shorts of black, white, grey, blue and greencolours.Nobody wore shirt and short of same colour.D wore blue shirt and C wore green short.The one who wore green shirt, wore black short and the one who wore blue short, wore red shirt.A wore white short and pink shirt.E did not wear red shirt. A) White B) Blue C) Grey D) Black Q189. Five senior citizens are living in a multi-storied building. Mr. Bhagat lives in a flat above Mr. Ashokan, Mr. Lokesh lives in a flat below Mr. Gaurav, Mr. Ashokan lives in a flat above Mr. Gaurav and Mr. Rakesh lives in a flat below Mr. Lokesh. Who lives in the topmost flat? A) Mr. Bhagat B) Mr. Gaurav C) Mr. Lokesh D) Mr. Rakesh Q190. Kittu is in between Mohan and Sohan & there is no other person sitting between them. Raju is to the left of Sohan and Shyam is to the right of Mohan. If all of the friends are sitting facing South, then who is on their extreme right? A) Kittu B) Sohan C) Mohan D) Shyam Q191. A train runs 120 km in West direction, 30 km in South Direction and then 80 km in east direction before reaching the station. In which direction is the station from the train’s starting point? A) South-East B) North-West C) South-West D) South Q192. Manu goes 40 km North, turns right and goes 80 km, turns right again and goes 30 km. In the end he turns right again and goes 80 km. How far is he from his starting point if he goes straight ahead another 50 km and turns left to go his last 10 km? A) 40 km B) 30 km C) 10 km D) 50 km Q193. Coin collection and listening to music are the hobbies of There are four friends Ravi, Hari, Manu and Jatin. One of them lives at Kanpur and his hobbies are reading and writing. Hari andJatin live at Lucknow. Hari’s hobby is stamp collection. Common hobby of two friends staying at Lucknow is coin collection. Ravilives at Allahabad. One boy staying at Lucknow also loves to hear music. The boy staying at Allahabad loves to travel and readcomics. All the boys have two hobbies each. A) Hari B) Ravi C) Manu D) Jatin Q194. Which of the following is not the hobby of Ravi? There are four friends Ravi, Hari, Manu and Jatin. One of them lives at Kanpur and his hobbies are reading and writing. Hari andJatin live at Lucknow. Hari’s hobby is stamp collection. Common hobby of two friends staying at Lucknow is coin collection. Ravilives at Allahabad. One boy staying at Lucknow also loves to hear music. The boy staying at Allahabad loves to travel and readcomics. All the boys have two hobbies each. (Note : reading and reading comics are two different hobbies) A) Travelling B) Reading C) Reading comics D) None of these Q195. If the third day of a month is Monday, which of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of that month? A) Wednesday B) Monday C) Tuesday D) Thursday Q196. My uncle shall visit me after 64 days of my father’s birthday. If my father’s birthday falls on Tuesday, what shall be the day on my uncle’s visit? A) Tuesday B) Sunday C) Wednesday D) Monday Q197. In a queue, Sadiq is 14th from the front and Joseph is 17th from the end, while Jane is in between Sadiq and Joseph. If Sadiq be ahead of Joseph and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Sadiq and Jane? A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 8 Q198. Jagan was to either get one-seventh of a milk chocolate or one-fourteenth of a bigger fruit chocolate. Which chocolate would give him the larger piece if the fruit chocolate is three times as large as the milk chocolate? A) The piece will be of the same size B) Fruit chocolate C) Milk chocolate D) None of these Q199. If such numbers which are divisible by 5, and also those which have 5 as one of the digits are eliminated from the numbers 1 to 60 (both inclusive), how many numbers would remain? A) 40 B) 47 C) 53 D) 45 Q200. What is the number of the different letters which occur in the word PANCHATANTRA? A) 7 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451 Time's up