MAT-3 Thanks For Submitting Your Details. You Can Start Your Test Now!! Name Mobile No. Email Id City State Country Course Q.1 A man received Rs. 12000 as Puja Bonus. He invested a part of it at 5% per annum and the remaining at 6% per annum, simple interest being allowed in each case. The total interest earned by him in 4 years is Rs. 2580. The sum invested at 5% per annum is (a) Rs. 4500 (b) Rs. 4000 (c) Rs. 7500 (d) Rs. 8000 Q.2. A finance company declares that, at a certain compound interest rate, a sum of money deposited by anyone will become 8 times in three years. If the same amount is deposited at the same compound rate of interest, then in how many year will it become 16 times ? (a) 5 years (b) 4 years (c) 6 years (d) 7 years Q.3. In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions a student got a total of 387 marks. Find the number of questions that he attempted wrong. (a) 36 (b) 18 (c) 9 (d) 27 Q.4. A boatman rows to a place 45 km distant and back in 20 hours. He finds that he can row 12 km with the stream in same time as 4 km against the stream . Find the speed of the stream. (a) 3 km/hr (b) 2.5 km/hr (c) 4 km/hr (d) Cannot be determined Q.5. Two cyclists start on a circular track from a given point but in opposite directions with speeds of 7 m/sec and 8 m/sec respectively. If the circumference of the circle is 300 metres, after what time will they meet at the starting point ? (a) 100 sec (b) 20 sec (c) 300 sec (d) 200 sec Q.6. In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions a student got a total of 387 marks. Find the number of questions that he attempted wrong (a) 36 (b) 18 (c) 9 (d) 27 Q.7. Ram went to a shop to buy 50 kg of rice. He buys two kinds of rice which cost him Rs. 4.50 per kg and Rs. 5.00 per kg. He spends a total of Rs. 240. What was the quantity of rice bought which cost him Rs. 4.50 per kg. (a) 25 kg (b) 30 kg (c) 20 kg (d) None of these Q.8. Seema invested an amount of Rs. 16,000 for two years on compound interest and received an amount of Rs. 17,640 on maturity. What is the rate of interest ? (a) 5 pcpa (b) 8 pcpa (c) 4 pcpa (d) Data inadequate Q.9. My Scooty gives an average of 40 kmpl of petrol. But after recent filling at the new petrol pump, its average dropped to 38 kmpl. I investigated and found out that it was due to adulterated petrol. Petrol pumps add kerosene, which is 2/3 cheaper than petrol, to increase their profits. Kerosene generates excessive smoke and knocking and gives an average of 18 km per 900 ml. If I paid Rs. 30 for a litre of petrol, what was the additional amount the pump-owner was making ? (a) Rs. 1.75 (b) Rs. 1.80 (c) Rs. 2.30 (d) Rs. 2 Q.10. A train after travelling 150 km meets with an accident and then proceeds at 3/5 of its former speed and arrives at its destination 8 hours late. Had the accident occurred 360 km further, it would have reached the destination 4 hours late. What is the total distance travelled by the train ? (a) 960 km (b) 870 km (c) 840 km (d) 1100 km Q.11. In an engineering college the average salary of all engineering graduates from Mechanical trade is Rs. 2.45 lacs per annum and that of the engineering graduates from Electronics trade is Rs. 3.56 lacs per annum. The average salary of all Mechanical and Electronics graduates is Rs. 3.12 lacs per annum. Find the least number of Electronics graduates passing out from this institute. (a) 43 (b) 59 (c) 67 (d) Cannot be determined Q.12. There are two identical vessels X and Y. Y is filled with water to the brim and X is empty. There are two pails A and B, such that B can hold half as much water as A. One operation is said to be executed when water is transferred from Y to X using B once. If A can hold 1/2 a litre of water and it takes 40 operations to equate the water level in X and Y, what is the total volume of water in the system ? (a) 20 litres (b) 10 litres (c) 50 litres (d) 30 litres Q.13. In a class with a certain number of students, if one student weighing 50 kg is added then the average weight of the class increases by 1 kg. If one more student weighing 50 kg is added then the average weight of the class increases by 1.5 kg over the original average. What is the original average weight (in kg) of the class. ? (a) 4 (b) 46 (c) 2 (d) 47 Q.14. Rahul can row a certain distance downstream in 6 hours and return the same distance in 9 hours. If the speed of Rahul in still water is 12 km/hr, find the speed of the stream. (a) 2 km/hr (b) 2.4 km/hr (c) 3 km/hr (d) Data inadequate Q.15. Large, medium and small ships are used to bring water. 4 large ships carry as much water as 7 small ships. 3 medium ships carry the same amount of water as 2 large ships, and 1 small ship. 15 large, 7 medium and 14 small ships each made 36 journeys and brought a certain quantity of water. In how many journeys would 12 large, 14 medium and 21 small ships bring the same quantity ? (a) 32 (b) 25 (c) 29 (d) 49 Q.16. A man can row 4.5 km/hr in still water and he finds that it takes him twice as long to row up as to row down the river. Find the rate of the stream. (a) 1.5 km/hr (b) 2 km/hr (c) 2.5 km/hr (d) 1.75 km/hr Q.17. The work done by a woman in 8 hours is equal to the work done by a man in 6 hours and by a boy in 12 hours. If working 6 hours per day 9 men can complete a work in 6 days, then in how many days can 12 men, 12 women and 12 boys together finish the same work, working 8 hours per day ? A. B. C. D. Q.18. A team of workers was employed by a contractor who undertook to finish 360 pieces of an article in a certain number of days. Making four more pieces per day than was planned, they could complete the job a day ahead of schedule. How many days did they take to complete the job ? (a) 10 days (b) 8 days (c) 9 days (d) 12 days Q.19. The average monthly salary of employees, consisting of officers and workers, of an organisation is Rs. 3000. The average salary of an officer is Rs. 10,000 while that of a worker is Rs. 2000 per month. If there are total 400 employees in the organisation, find the number of officers. (a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 80 (d) 40 Q.20. Two vessels contain mixtures of milk and water in the ratio of 8 : 1 and 1 : 5 respectively. The contents of both of these are mixed in a specific ratio into a third vessel. How much mixture must be drawn from the second vessel to fill the third vessel (capacity 26 gallons) completely in order that the resulting mixture may be half milk and half water ? (a) 12 gallons (b) 14 gallons (c) 10 gallons (d) 13 gallons Q.21 Amit Kumar got a 4-digit pass code (which is formed out of the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9) of his ATM card from ICICI Bank. But after the 50th day he lost the pass code and also forgot the number. How many maximum number of trials may he have to take to get the right number? 0 can be the beginning of the code number. Q.22. The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is leaning against. If the lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then the height of the wall is (a) 15 m (b) 12 m (c) 18 m (d) 11 m Q.23. If three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row, then the ratio of the total surface area of the new cuboid to that of the sum of the surface areas of the three cubes will be (a) 5 : 9 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 7 : 9 Q.24. An iron cube of size 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of the sheet be in the ratio 1 : 5, then the sides are Q.25 An iron cube of size 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of the sheet be in the ratio 1 : 5, then the sides are (a) 20 cm, 100 cm (b) 10 cm, 50 cm (c) 40 cm, 200 cm (d) None of these Q.26. Fresh grapes contain 80 per cent water while dry grapes contain 10 per cent water. If the weight of dry grapes is 250 kg what was its total weight when it was fresh ? (a) 1000 kg (b) 1125 kg (c) 1225 kg Q.27. A dealer buys dry fruit at the rate of Rs. 100, Rs 80 and Rs. 60 per kg. He bought them in the ratio 12 : 15 : 20 by weight. He in total gets 20% profit by selling the first two and at last he finds he has no gain no loss in selling the whole quantity which he had. What was the percentage loss he suffered for the third quantity ? (a) 40% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 50% Q.28. A man sitting in a train travelling at the rate of 50 km/hr observes that it takes 9 sec for a goods train travelling in the opposite direction to pass him. If the goods train in 187.5 m long, find its speed. (a) 40 km/hr (b) 25 km/hr (c) 35 km/hr Q.29. A train 300 m long is running at a speed of 90 km/hr. How many seconds will it take to cross a 200 m long train running in the opposite direction at a speed of 60 km/hr ? Q.30. Out of eight crew members three particular members can sit only on the left side. Another two particular members can sit only on the right side. Find the number of ways in which the crew can be arranged so that four men can sit on each side. (a) 864 (b) 865 (c) 863 (d) 1728 Q.31. Three pipes are made of different shapes. The cross-sections of the pipes are an equilateral triangle, a hexagon and a circle. The perimeter of each of these cross-sections is equal. The flow through the pipes is proportional to the area of cross- section. If it takes 8 minutes for the triangular pipe to fill up the tank, what will be the difference in the times taken by the hexagonal and circular pipes? (a) 45 seconds (b) 1 minute (c) 0.5 minutes (d) 7.9 minutes Q.32. The Qutab Minar casts a shadow 150 m long at the same time when the Vikas Minar casts a shadow 120 m long on the ground. If the height of the Vikas Minar is 80 m, find the height of the Qutab Minar. (a) 100 m (b) 180 m (c) 150 m (d) 120 m Q.33. Due to global recession starting in January, Ram’s monthly salary of Rs. 8000 was cut by 10%. The monthly expenses, which were Rs. 6000, increased at the rate of 5% per month. Since which month will he have no savings if the recession lasted for a year ? (a) April (b) March (d) June Q.34. An oil refinery takes 100 litres of crude oil as input and after refining for 1 hour gives certain amount of output oil X litres. This can be sold in the market at a profit of Rs 30 per litre. If this oil is further refined for ½ hour it gives oil Y litres. This can be sold at a profit of Rs. 50 per litre. Output and input ratio at both the stages is 90%. The maximum amount that can be earned from 1000 litres of crude input is (a) Rs. 30,000 (b) Rs. 27,000 (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 40,500 Q.35. A mixture (40 litres) contains tonic and water in the ratio 3 : 1 to make the ratio 5 : 1, how much additional amount of water is required? (a) 5 litres (b) 4 litres (c) 3 litres (d) 2 litres Q.36. If 11,109,999 is divided by 1111, then what is the remainder? (a) 1098 (b) 11888 (c) 1010 (d) 1110 Q.37. If an angle of a triangle remains unchanged but each of its two including side is doubled, then by what factor does the area get multiplied ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 Q.38. A number when divided by 765 leaves a remainder 42. What will be the remainder if the number is divided by 17 ? (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5 Q.39. If m and n are natural numbers such that 2m – 2n = 960, what is the value of m ? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) Cannot be determined Q.40. The radius of a cylindrical cistern is 10 metres and its height is 15 metres. Initially the cistern is empty, we start filling the cistern with water through a pipe whose diameter is 50 cm, water is coming out of the pipe with a velocity of 5 m/s. How many minutes will it take in filling the cistern with water? (a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80 Q.41. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics, but not in Computer Science ? These questions are based on the statements given below. Madhu and Shivani are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Asha and Madhu are good in Computer Science and physics. Asha, Pratibha and Namita are good in physics and History. Namita and Asha are good in Physics and Mathematics. Pratibha and Shivani are good in History and Dramatics. (a) Pratibha (b) Asha (c) Madhu (d) Namita Q.42. Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics ? These questions are based on the statements given below. Madhu and Shivani are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Asha and Madhu are good in Computer Science and physics. Asha, Pratibha and Namita are good in physics and History. Namita and Asha are good in Physics and Mathematics. Pratibha and Shivani are good in History and Dramatics. (a) Namita (b) Asha (c) Madhu Q.43. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics ? These questions are based on the statements given below. Madhu and Shivani are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Asha and Madhu are good in Computer Science and physics. Asha, Pratibha and Namita are good in physics and History. Namita and Asha are good in Physics and Mathematics. Pratibha and Shivani are good in History and Dramatics. (a) Pratibha (b) Madhu (c) Shivani (d) Asha Q.44. Who amongst the following friends is not good in Maths but good in Hindi ? Read the following information to answer these questions. Four friends A, B, C and D are Studying together in class 10+2. A and B are good in Hindi but poor in English. A and C are good in Sanskrit but poor in Geography. D and B are good in Maths as well as Sanskrit. (a) C (b) A (c) D (d) B Q.45. Which of the following pairs of friends is good both in English and Sanskrit ? Read the following information to answer these questions. Four friends A, B, C and D are Studying together in class 10+2. A and B are good in Hindi but poor in English. A and C are good in Sanskrit but poor in Geography. D and B are good in Maths as well as Sanskrit. (a) A and D (b) A and C (c) C and D (d) D and B Q.46. Which one of the following friends is good in Sanskrit but poor in Geography ? Read the following information to answer these questions. Four friends A, B, C and D are Studying together in class 10+2. A and B are good in Hindi but poor in English. A and C are good in Sanskrit but poor in Geography. D and B are good in Maths as well as Sanskrit. (a) A, C (b) D, C (c) C, B (d) B, D Q.47. On Wednesday Mohan Dey can watch Read the given information to answer the following questions. Mohan Dey is undecided which four movies to see this week. He is considering a spy thriller, a number mystery, a comedy and a science fiction. The movies will be shown by TV channels STAR, SONY, B4U and HBO, not necessarily in that order, and telecast on Tuesday, Wednesday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in that order. The movies by STAR will be shown on Sunday. The spy thriller will be shown on Tuesday. The science fiction movies are shown by B4U and not telecast on Saturday. The comedy is shown by HBO channel. (a) the science fiction movie (b) the murder mystery (c) the spy thriller (d) the comedy Q.48. The TV channel SONY will telecast Read the given information to answer the following questions. Mohan Dey is undecided which four movies to see this week. He is considering a spy thriller, a number mystery, a comedy and a science fiction. The movies will be shown by TV channels STAR, SONY, B4U and HBO, not necessarily in that order, and telecast on Tuesday, Wednesday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in that order. The movies by STAR will be shown on Sunday. The spy thriller will be shown on Tuesday. The science fiction movies are shown by B4U and not telecast on Saturday. The comedy is shown by HBO channel. (a) a comedy on Saturday (b) a science fiction movie on Saturday (c) a murder mystery on Tuesday (d) a spy thriller on Tuesday Q.49 Mohan Dey watched movies on two channels whose names come first and third in the alphabetical order he did not watch. Read the given information to answer the following questions. Mohan Dey is undecided which four movies to see this week. He is considering a spy thriller, a number mystery, a comedy and a science fiction. The movies will be shown by TV channels STAR, SONY, B4U and HBO, not necessarily in that order, and telecast on Tuesday, Wednesday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in that order. The movies by STAR will be shown on Sunday. The spy thriller will be shown on Tuesday. The science fiction movies are shown by B4U and not telecast on Saturday. The comedy is shown by HBO channel. (a) the movie shown on Wednesday (b) the murder mystery (c) the science fiction movie (d) the movie shown on Saturday Q.50. Which book is between the Math and English books ? Read the following information to answer these questions. Six books are kept one on top of the other. The History books is just above Accounting. The Maths books is between Punjabi and Urdu. English is between History and Punjabi. (a) Accountancy (b) History (c) Urdu (d) None of these Q.51. Which book is at the bottom ? Read the following information to answer these questions. Six books are kept one on top of the other. The History books is just above Accounting. The Maths books is between Punjabi and Urdu. English is between History and Punjabi. (a) Accountancy (b) Punjabi (c) Urdu (d) Cannot be determined Q.52. Read the following information to answer these questions. Six books are kept one on top of the other. The History books is just above Accounting. The Maths books is between Punjabi and Urdu. English is between History and Punjabi. Read the following information to answer these questions. Six books are kept one on top of the other. The History books is just above Accounting. The Maths books is between Punjabi and Urdu. English is between History and Punjabi. (a) Punjabi (b) Urdu (c) Accountancy (d) Cannot be determined Q.53. In each of these questions, two statements A and B are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider both the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions is/ are definitely drawn from the given statements. Mark answer as Statements : If there is shortage in the production of onions, the price of onions will go Price of onions has gone Conclusions : There is shortage in the production of Onions were (a) if only II follows. (b) if only I follows. (c) if neither I nor II follows. (d) if both I and II follow. Q.54. In each of these questions, two statements A and B are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider both the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions is/ are definitely drawn from the given statements. Mark answer as Statements : If all players play to their full potential, we will win the We have won the Conclusions : All players played to their full Some players did not play to their full (a) if only II follows. (b) if only I follows. (c) if neither I nor II follows. (d) if both I and II follow. Q.55. In each of these questions, two statements A and B are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider both the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions is/ are definitely drawn from the given statements. Mark answer as 26. Statements : Some businessmen are Soman is Conclusions : Soman is a Soman has big (a) if only II follows. (b) if only I follows. (c) if neither I nor II follows. (d) if both I and II follow. Q.56 What is the number of units demanded in B ? (a) 400 (b) 350 (c) 450 (d) 500 Q.57. If the number of units demanded in C is 225, what is the value of M ? (a) 875 (b) 1075 (c) 775 (d) 850 Q.58 If the total demand in E is 80% of the demand in A, what is the demand in A ? (a) 2400 (b) 2500 (c) 4500 Q.59. Who is the professor in the group? Read the information given below to answer these question. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are going by a car to see Agra. In this group, there are three journalists, a professor and a doctor. In the group, there are two married couples. No man in the group is professor and a doctor. ‘F’ is a sick man and he lives with his married son ‘C’. Among the three journalists, husband of ‘D’ who looks after his sick father earns more than ‘E’, who in turn gets more pay than ‘B’. Sister of ‘E’ gets less pay than her husband ‘B’ but not more than ‘A’. (a) B (b) A (c) C (d) Cannot be determined Q.60. Which of the following is a pair of ladies? Read the information given below to answer these question. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are going by a car to see Agra. In this group, there are three journalists, a professor and a doctor. In the group, there are two married couples. No man in the group is professor and a doctor. ‘F’ is a sick man and he lives with his married son ‘C’. Among the three journalists, husband of ‘D’ who looks after his sick father earns more than ‘E’, who in turn gets more pay than ‘B’. Sister of ‘E’ gets less pay than her husband ‘B’ but not more than ‘A’. (a) A, C (b) A, D (c) A, B (d) Cannot be determined Q.61 Who among the following earns the least ? Read the information given below to answer these question. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are going by a car to see Agra. In this group, there are three journalists, a professor and a doctor. In the group, there are two married couples. No man in the group is professor and a doctor. ‘F’ is a sick man and he lives with his married son ‘C’. Among the three journalists, husband of ‘D’ who looks after his sick father earns more than ‘E’, who in turn gets more pay than ‘B’. Sister of ‘E’ gets less pay than her husband ‘B’ but not more than ‘A’ (a) B (b) A (c) C (d) D Q.62. In each of these questions a few statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusion(s) and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements. Statements: All mirrors are phonesSome phones are gadgetsAll gadgets are mirrors Conclusions : Some gadgets are phonesSome gadgets are mirrorsSome gadgets are not mirrorsSome mirrors are phones. (a) Only I and II follow (b) None follows (c) Only II and II follow (d) Either II or IV follow Q.63 In each of these questions a few statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusion(s) and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements. Statements :All rackets are jackets No cow is cat.Only cats are dog.Conclusions : Some rackets are not cats. Some rackets are not jackets. Some rackets are cats. No dog is a cow. (a) Only II and IV follow (b) Only either I or III and IV follow (c) Only III and IV follow (d) Only I and IV follow Q.64 In each of these questions a few statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusion(s) and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements. Statements : All stairs are lifts No lift is an escalator. Some escalators are helicopters. Some lifts are planes. Conclusions : No stairs is an escalator. Some helicopters are not escalators. Some stairs are planes. Some helicopters are escalators (a) Only I and IV follow (b) Only I and either II or IV follow (c) Either II or IV follows (d) Only I, III or IV follow Q.65 Man learns through experience as he has initiative by nature Each of the following incomplete arguments is followed by four sentences. One of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the argument in order to justify the conclusion, Pick that out. (a) All who have initiative by nature learn through experience. (b) Some who have initiative by nature learn through experience (c) None who has initiative by nature learns through experience. (d) Only few with initiative learn through experience. Q.66. We now have to fight for peace with some courage and determination as we fought against aggression. Each of the following incomplete arguments is followed by four sentences. One of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the argument in order to justify the conclusion, Pick that out. (a) All those who have fought against aggression should fight for peace. (b) Many are fighting for peace who have fought against aggression. (c) Some who are fighting for peace have fought against aggression. (d) None is fighting for peace who have fought for aggression. Q.67 Education has produced a vast population able to read but unable to distinguish what is worth reading Each of the following incomplete arguments is followed by four sentences. One of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the argument in order to justify the conclusion, Pick that out. (a) All educated people can distinguish worth reading materials. (b) Many educated people cannot distinguish worth reading materials. (c) As much as educated people are there, it is easy to distinguish worth reading materials. (d) All those who are educated cannot distinguish the materials worth reading. Q.68 You can find Chinese toys only in china. A. I didn’t find Chinese toys.B. I found Chinese toys.C. I went to the fair.D. I didn’t go to China. (a) CB (b) CD (c) CA (d) AD Q.69 Only in Africa, can you see the African elephant A. You went to Africa.B. You didn’t go to Africa.C. You saw the African elephant.D. You didn’t see the African elephant. (a) DB (b) AC (c) AD (d) BD Q.70 From a point, Rajneesh started walking towards east and walked 35 m. He then turned towards his right and walked 20 m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally he turned to his left and walked 20 m and he reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting point ? Add description here! (a) 55 m (b) 50 m (c) 20 m (d) 40 m Q.71. Rama remembers that she met her brother on Saturday, which was after the 20th day of a particular month. If the 1st day of that month was Tuesday, then on which date did Rama meet her brother ? (a) 24th (b) 23rd (c) 25th (d) None of these Q.72. ntroducing Rajesh, Neha said, his brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather, How is Neha related to Rajesh ? (a) Daughter (b) Sister (c) Mother (d) Niece Q.73. A directional post is erected on a crossing. In an accident, it was turned in such a way that the arrow which was first showing east is now showing south. A passerby went in a wrong direction thinking it is west. In which direction is he actually travelling now ? (a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West Q.74. There are eight poets A, B, C, D, E, F, G and A, B, C and D are medieval poets whereas E, F, G and H are modern poets. Questions on modern poets and medieval poets are set in the question paper every alternate year. Among the modern poets, question-setters who like E also like F and those who like G also like H. The question-setter has written a book on F and so he does not like to ask any question on F. Last year there was a question on A. On which poet will be the probable question this year ? (a) F (b) E (c) D (d) C Q.75. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. Book C lies above D. Book E is below A; D is above A; B is below E. Which is at the bottom ? (a) B (b) E (c) A (d) C Q.76 A one -rupee coin is placed on a plain paper. How many coins of the same size can be placed round it so that each one touches the central and adjacent coins ? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6 Q.77 After a get-together every person present shakes the hand of every other person. If there were 105 hands shakes in all, how many persons were present in the party? (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 16 Q.78 In a queue I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my position in the queue ? (a) 37 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 39 Q.79. A cube is to be coloured in such a way as to avoid the same colour on adjacent surfaces. What is the minimum number of colours you will require ? (a) Four (b) Three (c) Six (d) Nine Q.80 Ram’s age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How long must he wait before his age is again the cube of a number ? (a) 10 years (b) 39 years (c) 38 years (d) 64 years Q.81. An office has as many four-legged chairs and as many four- legged tables as workers, and as many three-legged stools as four-legged If the number of stools be one more than the number of workers and the total number of legs be 585, the number of workers in the office are ? (a) 17 (b) 34 (c) 16 (d) Cannot be determined Q.82. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A says to B. ‘If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as C has and I shall have 3 less than what C has. Also if I take 8 cards from C, I shall have twice as many as D has. If B and D together have 50 cards, how many cards has A got ? (a) 27 (b) 23 (c) 37 (d) 40 Q.83 The political masters of the health care system have not listened to professional health planners because it has not been profitable for them to do that thing. Each of these questions has an underlined part. Choose the option that best replaces the underlined part. Answer option (2) repeats the original. (a) has not been profitable for them to do so. (b) has not been profitable for them to do that thing. (c) has been unprofitable for them to do that thing. (d) has been unprofitable for them to do so. Q.84 Most bacterial population grown in controlled conditions will quickly expand to limit the food supply, produce toxic waste products that inhibit further growth, and reached the equilibrium state within a relatively short time. Each of these questions has an underlined part. Choose the option that best replaces the underlined part. Answer option (2) repeats the original. (a) Will have produced toxic waste products that inhibit further growth and also will reach an equilibrium state within a relatively short time. (b) Produce toxic waste products that inhibit further growth, and reached the equilibrium state within a relatively short time. (c) Will then produce a toxic waste product that inhibits further growth and thus reached an equilibrium state in a very short time. (d) Produce toxic waste products that inhibit further growth and reach equilibrium . Q.86. It could be argued that the most significant virtue of a popular democracy is not the right to participate in the selection of leaders, but rather that it affirms our importance in the scheme of things. Each of these questions has an underlined part. Choose the option that best replaces the underlined part. Answer option (2) repeats the original. (a) but rather is affirmation of (b) but rather that it affirms (c) but rather it’s affirmation in terms of (d) but instead of that, its affirming that Q.87. Long popular among the connoisseurs of Indian music, Ravi Shankar first impressed western listeners with his phenomenal technical virtuosity, but they soon came to appreciate his music as an artful expression of an older culture’s musical insight. (a) but it soon occurred that they appreciated his artful music as an (b) but they soon came to appreciate his music as an artful (c) but soon this was surpassed by an appreciation of it as an artful (d) which was soon surpassed by an even deeper appreciation of it as an artful Q.88. Professionals focus their ........ on fulfilling their responsibilities and achieving results, not on a particular image. (a) leadership - attributing (b) planning - devising (c) abilities - contributing (d) energies - portraying Q.84. When you are living with your........... values and principles, you can be straightforward, honest and ........ (a) inherited - distinct (b) core -up-front (c) innate - durable (d) cultural - perceptive Q.85. In the role of a counsellor, you are an authority figure whose objective is to attentively and sensitively to employees who............ you with their feelings. (a) manage - direct (b) projects - focus (c) listen - trust (d) concentrate - believe Q.86. If a junior executive neglects his professional development and education, he can easily and quickly become obsolete in a world changing at............... rates. (a) higher - vulnerable (b) management - voluminous (c) better - supreme (d) continuing - dizzying Q.87. Each question has a group of sentences marked A, B, C, and D. Arrange these to form a logical sequence. We tend to see the similarity within a category as being more important, and the similarity between different categories as being less important, that either actually is. Given a small amount of information about a person, we are ready to classify them as a member of a particular group, and then to infer all kinds of additional facts about them, as if all members of the group were the same in most Our tendency to classify and label everything can lead us into the error of seeing the world as made up of only those categories for which we have Expecting too much of the descriptive power of languages is itself a serious cause of distorted (a) DCBA (b) DBAC (c) BDAC (d) BCDA Q.88 Each question has a group of sentences marked A, B, C, and D. Arrange these to form a logical sequence. A. Some of us, as a result, gain an overall impression of people as either all good or all bad, making further assumptions on this basis.B. An example of the assumption some patients make that doctors with a good “bedside manner” are also more technically competent as others who do not relate as well to theirC. This is what the psychologists refer to as halo effect.D.We have a strong tendency of associate positive attributes with other positive attributes and negative ones with each (a) DCBA (b) DABC (c) DBCA (d) DACB Q.89 Which of the following, if true would tend to strengthen the view of the spokesman? Many of the junk foods on the market today, doughnuts, burgers and pizza, have less nutrients than natural foods, which were dominant a decade or two Many nutritionists claim that pizza and doughnuts give less nourishment than natural foods. A spokesman of a leading junk food company- Pizza House - stated recently that an examination of grade school students shows less nutritional deficiency than in their parents’ time. Hence, junk foods are not as bad as made out to be. (a) Fewer junk foods were available to the parents. (b) Grade school children reported eating no breakfast at all. (c) Adults claim to eat junk foods as well as natural foods. (d) Both (1) and (3) Q.90. Throughout the first decade of the 21st century, net increases in Indian direct investments in the Far East (funds outflows) exceeded net new Far East direct investment in India. Each of the following, if true, could help to account for this trend except Many of the junk foods on the market today, doughnuts, burgers and pizza, have less nutrients than natural foods, which were dominant a decade or two Many nutritionists claim that pizza and doughnuts give less nourishment than natural foods. A spokesman of a leading junk food company- Pizza House - stated recently that an examination of grade school students shows less nutritional deficiency than in their parents’ time. Hence, junk foods are not as bad as made out to be. (a) Labour mobility was higher in India than in the Far East. (b) Land values in the Far East were increasing at a faster rate than in India. (c) The cost of labour (wages) was consistently lower in the Far East than in India. (d) Corporate liquidity was lower in India than in the Far East. Q.91. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the idea that these countries serve as examples as described above ? Of the world’s largest AIDS cases countries in 2010, three had the same share of world AIDS patients as they had in These three countries may serve as examples of countries that succeeded in holding steady their share of the AIDS disease. (a) Countries should strive to reduce their share of the total AIDS patient in the world, rather than try to hold it constant. (b) Of the three countries two had a much larger share of world AIDS incidence in 2000 than in 2010. (c) The three countries have different rates of population growth. (d) None of these Q.92. Which of the following adjustments could practically be made to the situation described above which would allow young couples to improve their housing prospects ? The cost of housing in many urban parts of India has becomes so excessive that many young couples, with above- average salaries, can only afford small EMI and rent commitments are so huge that they cannot consider the possibility of starting a family since a new baby would probably mean either the mother or father giving up a well- paid position - something they can ill afford. The lack of or great cost of child-care facilities further precludes the return of both parents to work. (a) Encourage couples to have one child only. (b) Encourage couples to remain childless. (c) Encourage young couples to move to cheaper areas for living. (d) None of these is likely to have an impact on the current situation. Q.93. No officer had ought to be put into situation where he has to choose between his love for his family and the responsibilities accompanying his duty. Each of these questions has sentence with four alternatives. Choose the alternative which best conveys the content of the given sentence correctly. (a) No officer had ought to be put into a situation in which he has to choose between his love for his family and the responsibilities accompanying his duty. (b) No officer had ought to be put into a situation where he has to choose between his love for his family and the responsibilities accompanying his duty. (c) No officer should be put into a situation where he has to choose between his love for his family and the responsibilities accompanying his duty. (d) No officer ought to be put into a situation in which he has to choose between his love for his family and the responsibilities accompanying his duty. Q.94. Being a realist, the detective could not accept the statement of the accused that UFOs had caused the disturbance. Each of these questions has sentence with four alternatives. Choose the alternative which best conveys the content of the given sentence correctly. (a) Since he was a realist, the detective could not accept the statement of the accused that UFOs had caused the disturbance. (b) Being a realist the detective could not accept the statement of the accused that UFOs had caused the disturbance. (c) Being that he was a realist, the detective could not accept the statement of the accused that UFOs had caused the disturbance. (d) Realist that he was, the detective could not accept the statement of the accused that UFOs had caused the disturbance. Q.95. A sentence has been divided into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. (1) In the past, behind the immediate popularity (2) of the phonograph is the entire electric (3) implosion that gave such new stress and (4) importance to actual speech rhythms in music, poetry, and dance alike Q.96 A sentence has been divided into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. (1) Science really begins when general principles (2) have to be put to the test of fact (3) and when practical problems and theoretical relations (4) of relevant factors is used to manipulate reality in human action Q.100 TSTHNAIE Rearrange the following letters and make a meaningful word which is opposite to the answers. (1) dential (2) decorte (3) careful (4) willing Q.101 What is/ are the primary reason(s) for the lack of complete success in improving health care in India? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcom- ings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the prob- lem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a sup- ply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, ener- gy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seek- ing modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges can- not be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets includ- ing Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and spe- cialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-of- pocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. Total government apathy in this Policy makers' inability to properly priorities the measures Shortage of PHCs across the (1) A only (2) B only (3) A & C (4) A, B & C Q.102 It is implied in the passage that For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcom- ings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the prob- lem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a sup- ply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, ener- gy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seek- ing modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges can- not be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets includ- ing Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and spe- cialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-of- pocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. (1) when it comes to primary health care facilities, people from villages and towns are equally at a disadvantage (2) PHCs established in the country actually become ineffective due to shortage of doctors and medical supplies (3) the best way to ensure better health care facilities in the country is to priva- tise them completely (4) with the will to work, government can improve health care facilities in the country within a short period Q.103 Which of the following statements is/ are true in the context of the passage? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcom- ings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the prob- lem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a sup- ply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, ener- gy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seek- ing modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges can- not be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets includ- ing Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and spe- cialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-of- pocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. (1) A country's monetary health is directly affected by the physical health of its citizens (2) India has lesser number of doctors and nurses than most other countries in the world (3) Only about one-fourth of India's population has access to health insurance (4) All these Q.104 Which of the following statements is/ are not true in the context of the passage? For decades, the Government has grappled with India's health care shortcom- ings by introducing various programmes. Despite some measure of success, the prob- lem of universal health care access continues to fester like a recalcitrant sore. While there are several reasons for the lack of complete success in improving health care access, the overall problem may lie in the pursuit of improper priorities. To address access issued headon, radically improving primary health care in India should be top priority. A steep shortage in primary health care centres (PHCs) across India is the prime reason why villagers are forced to trek almost 20 km to reach the nearest PHC. This may still be of little use, because most PHCs are perpetually plagued by a sup- ply and staff shortage, making matters worse for sick patients who expend time, ener- gy and resources to reach the PHC. For people from towns and semi-urban areas seek- ing modern medical care the situation is no different since they need to travel to the nearest city. Despite 7,50,000 doctors registered with the Medical Council of India, the ground reality is that about 2,00,000 aren't active anymore. This means India has only one doctor to treat 2,000 people, instead of one doctor for every 1,000. Improving those figures will take time because the number of medical and nursing colleges can- not be hiked overnight to boost the output of medical graduates. The time has come to firmly recognise that health and health care issues cannot be left solely to the Government or public sector entities if India is to meet its health care targets includ- ing Millennium Development Goals for 2015. Such immense investments and spe- cialised skills could best be tapped if public-private partnerships were promoted and Private companies encouraged to establish health care infrastructure in all geographies - urban, semi-urban and rural - particularly where primary health care is concerned. Estimated indicate that only 320 million people or 26 percent of India's population are covered under some form of medical insurance - public or private. In other words, large uncovered sections of the populace are forced to meet medical costs via out-of- pocket spends, causing immense financial burden and pushing many families into poverty. The Government has failed to correctly assess the requirement of medical colleges in Over 25% of the doctors who register with the Medical Council of India never get into the medical Private participation in the primary health sector is a must to ensure its suc- cess we go forward towards Millennium Development Goals for (1) A only (2) B only (3) A & B (4) A, B & C Q.105 Which of the following factors is/ are favouring India's transition to a clean energy future? With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electrici- ty consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - ener- gy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a network- ing service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful trans- mission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. India has abundant India's electricity consumption is less than China's or the USA's? India has ash - rich coal (1) A only (2) A & B (3) A & C (4) C only Q.106 It is implied in the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electrici- ty consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - ener- gy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a network- ing service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful trans- mission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. (1) 'electricity - for - all' should be the Government's motto (2) traditional electric power should be replaced by solar electric power in India (3) if India transforms itself into a clearn energy country, the rest of the world would benefit due to additional electricity available to them (4) All these Q.107 It is not implied in the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electrici- ty consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - ener- gy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a network- ing service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful trans- mission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. India should switch over completely to solar power by installing solar power kits in every by installing solar panels on every roof top, India could make power grids redundant. per capita energy consumption in China is higher than that in India (1) A & B (2) B & C (3) A & C (4) A, B & C Q.108 It can be inferred from the passage that With will and vision, India's energy prospects can be changed from grim to green, and the world will benefit as a result, At 571 kWh per capita, India's electrici- ty consumption is one-fifth of China's (2,631 kWh) and less than one - twentieth of the USA's (12,914 kWh). India's electricity demand will only grow. Solar electricity today at Rs.7.50 a kWh is economical compared with subsidised diesel generated power at roughly Rs.15 a unit, but more expensive than coal - based electricity at about Rs.6 And, in any case, India has ash - rich coal. What is the true cost of coal - based power? Prices are distorted by subsidies, State boundaries, vote - bank politics, and uncharged carbon - emission costs. Can India leapfrog into a clean - ener- gy future rather than extend the conventional grid with fossil fuels at its core? In a nation blessed with abundant sunlight, to what extent should electricity be a network- ing service at all? Could India tap ambient solar energy for most of its needs? India's single - minded focus should be massive and rapid solar deployment, not only through utility - scale solar plants, but also through distributed generation, household - by - household, nationwide. Electricity in Indian homes should be roof top - to - room and solar based with energy self - sufficiency as the goal; the grid can complement and serve as back - up where available. Anchored with solar, the solutions may include combinations with bio - diesel, batteries, wind, biogas, micro - hydro, etc. At night or when the sun is behind clouds, alternative yet local sources can assure electricity. Once solar energy takes root, India will need less of the colossal and wasteful trans- mission, distribution and generation infrastructure except for industrial operations such as running factories and trains. (1) India is the third - largest producer of electricity in the world (2) solar electricity is not necessarily more expensive than coal - based electricity (3) as of today India, as a country, has energy self - sufficiency (4) All these Q.109 The objective of the author in writing this article appears to be to The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor gen- erates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. (1) advise the government in financial management of the surplus funds of PSUs (2) analyse the possible ways in which PSUs could invest their surplus funds to make the same more productive. (3) ensure better returns for private shareholders. (4) criticise the government for its archaic fiscal and investment policies. Q.110 What are the twin benefits that the author suggests would accure, if PSUs invest their surplus funds more prudently? (1) Public sector and private sector banks would both get more - money into their coffers. (2) Both the Government and private shareholders would earn more returns on their investments in PSU shares. (3) Projects meant for general public good would get funds more readily; while the funds themselves earn good returns instead of being idly parked. (4) None of these Q.111 It is implied in the passage that the Government. had hitherto been unjustly siphoning off the surplus funds of is bereft of ideas when it comes to deciding where to park the surplus funds of PSUs had always favoured channelising the surplus funds of PSUs into public sec- tor (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A & B Q.112 Which of the following statements about mutual funds is not true in the context of the passage? The change in the Government's focus, from coveting the cash balances of public sector undertaking (PSUs) to examining how these can be put to better use by them, is a welcome development. In the current investment - starved environment, there is certainly a strong macro - economic imperative for inducing PSUs to deploy funds in capex programmes. But, from a shareholder's perspective- and that applies to the Government as well - it is also important that funds in excess of their immediate investment needs, estimated at over Rs. 1 lakh crore, earn a reasonable return. This is made difficult by rigid and archaic investment norms. So, it is a double whammy, wherein idle money of state - owned firms neither gets invested in projects nor gen- erates sufficient portfolio returns. The current guidelines on deployment of surplus cash by PSUs decree that 60 percent of these should be parked with public sector banks. The 'public sector' mutual funds requirement is outdated, when many of them promoted by the likes of UTI, SBI and LIC have roped in foreign partners, making these ventures little different from pure private sector fund houses. Now that the investment guidelines are to be reviewed by a Government committee, it may be best for the Government to just stipulate general prudential norms to be followed by PSUs. These norms could emphasise safety liquidity of investments, their diversification across asset classes and securities, and provisions against taking speculative bets, that expose shareholder funds to capital loss risks. (1) 'Public Sector' mutual fund company is a misnomer now, as most of these companies have got 'foreign', private partners. (2) Mutual funds of private sector banks alone give good returns (3) Every PSU has to invest at least 30% of its cash surplus in public sector mutu- al funds (4) All these Q.113 Which of the following statements about India's nuclear capability building is/ are true? The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been run- ning for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and, so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An inde- pendent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regu- late nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. (1) India has depended on foreign countries to set up the first nuclear reactors in India (2) To this day India continues to be dependent on foreign countries for mainte- nance of its nuclear installations. (3) India has never faced any issues related to environment at its nuclear instal- lations. (4) All these Q.114 How is the safety of nuclear reactors in India ensured? The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been run- ning for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and, so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An inde- pendent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regu- late nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. (1) By keeping usage of radio-active-material to the minimum (2) By locating the reactors in distant places, far from human habitation. (3) By ensuring regular inspections by experts available in India (4) None of these Q.115 The author is of the view that The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been run- ning for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and, so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An inde- pendent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regu- late nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. (1) there is severe lack of educational programmes in the field of nuclear tech- nology in India. (2) the Government agencies have failed to suitably assure the public that the nuclear reactors installed in India pose no threat in general. (3) nuclear energy can play a bigger role than present in India. (4) All these Q.116 All of the following statements are implied in the passage except The first requirement to ensure nuclear safety is technical expertise which India has. No questions have been raised so far about the expertise in Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The first reactors were imported. Soon after commissioning the original suppliers left leaving us to fend for ourselves. The reactors have been run- ning for decades without any serious environmental issues. More reactors have since been built indigenously with enhanced safety features, and increased power rating. Continuous monitoring of these shows negligible environmental impact compared to that arising from natural background radiation. All of this as possible because of the expertise available in DAE institutions. In the early years, there was self-regulation of safety. It had to be so because there was no other group working in this field. It worked very well. As the programme expanded, a full-time regulatory body was needed and, so, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) came into being. Continuing absence of education and research a nuclear technology in academic institutions meant the AERB had to be staffed with experts transferred to it from DAE units. AERB also had to rely on expertise in DAE for various kinds of analyses. This was facilitated by the AERB being under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). Information that ought to have been disseminated in the first place was not available to the public. This has naturally tended to imputed motives on attitude of AERB and DAE to safety. An inde- pendent regulator is being demanded as the answer. Steps have to be initiated in the direction now. Meanwhile, reliance on expertise in DAE institutions is inevitable. If total independence now is impractical and expertise outside DAE is unavailable, only total transparency on the part of AERB and DAE can redeem the situation. This had not yet come about. If a larger contribution from nuclear energy is required, more effort is needed to effectively answer public questions on plant safety and to dispel needless fear of radiation. A brand new independent agency to be set up now to regu- late nuclear safety may please some people, but would find it difficult to cope with the demands of an expanding programme with new designs. (1) the foreign suppliers of India's first nuclear reactors abandoned them right after installation. (2) indigenous technical expertise is enough to ensure the safety of Indian nuclear power installations (3) nuclear radiation is not a factor to be feared by the people of India. (4) no new regulatory body is required to ensure nuclear safety in India. Q.117 Which of the following is not outlined in the passage as a possible retaliatory measure of the pharma companies? Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essen- tial drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were main- tained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and avail- ability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maxi- mum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. Altogether stopping production of the 348 essential drugs put under price control. Reducing production of non essential Strive to get the 348 drugs out of the list of essential (1) A & B (2) B & C (3) A & C (4) A, B & C Q.118 It is implied in the passage that Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essen- tial drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were main- tained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and avail- ability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maxi- mum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. (1) mandatory levels of production of essential drugs had hitherto never been in existence India (2) Government control on drugs prices would directly affect their profit margins (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) Q.119 Which of the following is/ are the outcome(s) of the enactment of Drugs Price Control Order? Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essen- tial drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were main- tained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and avail- ability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maxi- mum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. (1) The Government has also decided to take up widespread distribution of essential drugs. (2) There is widespread resentment against this law; chiefly by the drug manu- facturers (3) The Department of Pharmaceutical has been formed to ensure proper imple- mentation of the price control mechanism (4) None of these Q.120 In India the government fixes the prices of Apprehensive that pharma companies may stop or reduce production of essen- tial drugs after they come under price control, the Government is mulling steps to ensure that companies maintain present levels of output of these critical drugs. Sources said the recent decision to put a price cap 348 drugs was accompanied by a concern that the manufactures could lose interest in these medicines owing to reduced margins of profit. It was based on the past experience when the drug price control was first enacted. The Group of Ministers (GoM) that took the landmark decision directed the Department of Pharmaceutical to ensure that present production levels were main- tained after the price control. As a follow-up, sources said, the Government could fix mandatory level of production in these drugs for each company in business. The fear over companies retaliating with decrease production revolves around the fact the price control would check profit margins. Once the essential medicines are brought under the Drug Price Control Order, they cannot be sold at a price highter than that fixed by the Government. A senior official said, "We will ensure that accessibility and avail- ability of essential drugs does not go down". The GoM has also decided that the prices of medicines, which are part of the price control order of 1995 but not in the National List of Essential Medicines 2011, would be frozen for a year and thereafter a maxi- mum increase of 10% per annum would be permitted. Out of the 348 medicines, the prices of 37 drugs are controlled by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The Government, through the NPPA, controls prices of 74 bulk drugs and their formulations. (1) all medicines (2) essential drugs only (3) bulk drugs only (4) None of these Q.121 Jayashree was habitually so docile and .......... that her friends could not under- stand her sudden her employers. (1) accommodating, outburst against (2) calm, anger for (3) truculent, virulence toward (4) quiet, annoyance toward Q.122 Carried away by the ......... effect of the experimental medication, the patient......... his desire to continue as a subject for as long as he could. (1) supplementary, announced (2) smoothening, proclaimed (3) satisfying, repeated (4) salutary, reiterated Q.123 As several shops have ......... across the street, the old directory is ......... (1) relocated, obsolete (2) moved, wasteful (3) transferred, useless (4) travelled, redundant Q.124 Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A) Easy or not, etiquette is importantB) There's a reason for doing things the way we do them -- we just have no idea what itC) I had to interrupt my cell phone call to tell himD) I was trying to explain this the other night to my children -- Matt, 15, and Becky, 11 who, I'm ashamed to say, have been allowed to develop less than perfect manners, especially at the table.E) At this particular family dinner, I caught Matt buttering his backed potato with his finger (1) ABCDE (2) ABDEC (3) BCDAE (4) BDACE Q.125 Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. A. "Are you all right?" I asked, as I helped her to her seat. "That turbulence was as bad as it gets."B. Flying in the summer means one thing: turbulence.C. I was working as a flight attendant when we hit a patch of very rough air just after a young teenager, obviously on her first flight, had entered theD. After the bumps had subsided, she exited the bathroom, a look of sheer terror etched on herE. "So that's what it was," she said, "I thought I'd pushed the wrong " (1) DAEBC (2) BCDAE (3) AEBDC (4) CADBE Q.126 An employee who is given the financial support and resources to create new products or systems is called an intrapreneur. Some of the greatest business lead- ers of the past made their early mark in business as intrapreneurs. Most progres- sive organisations view intrapreneurship as a way to develop and retain the best manpower and provide an entrepreneurial atmosphere within the organisation. It also adds to the potential of an otherwise static organisation. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. (1) An entrepreneur works independently to setup a business venture while an intrapreneur does the same thing for the company he works for. (2) Intrapreneurship helps organisations to nurture and retain the best of talent for mutual benefit. (3) Big companies encourage intrapreneurship which, in turn, throws up future entrepreneurs. (4) While entrepreneurship is a well known concept, intrapreneurship is an emerging concept. Q.127 Health these days is being threatened by a growing phenomenon. Bacteria that cause common life threatening infections are becoming increasingly resistant to antibiotics. This is due to the widespread use and misuse of such antibiotics. Antimicrobial resistance needs immediate attention. Self-medication should be discouraged. Asepsis should be the gospel for the prevention of infection. Each of these questions has a text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. (1) Reckless use of antibiotics, the main cause of drug resistant bacteria, has led to a serious health challenge. (2) Over the counter availability of antibiotics encourages self - medication. (3) Keeping our surroundings germ - free can curb the need of antibiotics. (4) Mutated drug resistant bacteria are a serious threat to our life. Q.128 Satyagraha, a philosophy and practice of non-violent resistance, has the power to shame the powerful because it makes a moral statement before the But it is only effective when the practitioner acquires the moral right to undertake the action. Only a principled person can carry Satyagraha to its logical end. Any regime, liberal or illiberal, finds it tough to suppress this movement. This weapon of truth and non-violence rarely fails provided it is used selflessly in public inter- est. Satyagraha become Duragraha if it is used as blackmail. (1) Satyagraha has time and again proved a powerful tool to fight for a just cause. (2) Satyagraha is a battle which is sure to win over the opponents. (3) Unfail demands through Satyagraha amount to blackmailing and are anti to the spirit of Satyagraha. (4) The success of Satyagraha depends on the integrity, morality and uprightness of the person as well as the fairness of the cause. Q.129 For long, sociologists have warned of the dire consequences of an increasingly skewed sex A falling sex ratio is a cumulative process which could lead to more crimes and violence against women. Without enough brides, men would be forced to purchase wives leading to human trafficking. This, in turn, would lead to insecure parents resorting to even more female foeticide and keeping girls indoors out of fear of their protection. In the long run all the gains made in push- ing for greater female literacy and empowerment could be undone. (1) The indiscriminate female foeticide has a potential to create an imbalance in our society and can push women empowerment backwards. (2) The imbalance in male and female ratio can give rise to more crimes against women. (3) Deficit in female population can lead to defunct family system. (4) Skewed male female sex ratio has a potential to reduce women's statue in society. Q.130 Which of the following best describes ‘procrastination’? Procrastination is a costly and draining problem for allof us. The easiest way to deal with procrastination is tonever let it get started in the first place. Procrastinationplagues us all. More plans go astray, more dreamsgo unfilled, and more time is wasted. It is a majorstumbling block for almost everyone seeking toimprove his use of time. For many, this becomes aninsidious habit that can ruin their careers, destroy theirhappiness, and even shorten their lives.Procrastination is respectful of no one. All of us sufferfrom it at one time or another. Procrastination is doinglow priority actions or tasks rather than higher priorityones. It is straightening your desk when you should beworking on the report; watching TV when you shouldbe exercising; calling on the friendly customer whobuys very little when you should be preparing a salespresentation for that tough prospect who could buymuch more; avoiding a co-worker rather than tellinghim the bad news; staying away from office to avoiddisciplining a subordinate; and postponing activitieswith your children, because there always seems to besomething “more urgent”, until suddenly they’re grownand you realize it’s too late to do any of the thingsyou’ve always talked about doing together. (1) linger on (2) stop (3) delay (4) wait Q.131 Why is procrastination said to be a stumbling block? (1) It prevents fulfillment of goals. (2) It hinders effectiveness and efficiency. (3) It stops one from working. (4) It makes one lazy. Q.132 Choose a word or phrase nearly similar in meaning to the given word " Self-esteem". (1) Self-respect (2) Dignity (3) Decorum (4) Self-awareness Q.133. Choose a word or phrase nearly similar in meaning to the given word " Sobriety". (1) Abstinence (2) Sober (3) Moderate (4) Dry Q.133 A word in capital letters is followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters " OBLOQUY" . (1) praise (2) crue (3) slander (4) dialogue Q.134 The sentence has four underlined parts marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one underlined part that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. (1) A (2) B (3) C (3) C Q.135 In the following question a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.APHORISM : SENTENTIOUS : : (1) criticism : redundant (2) eulogy : laudatory (3) adage : symbolic (4) maxim : allegorical Q.136 A screwdriver and a hammer currently have the same price. If the price of a screwdriver rises by 5% and the price of a hammer goes up by 3%, how much more will it cost to buy 3 screwdrivers and 3 hammers? (1) 3% (2) 4% (3) 5% (4) 8% Q.137 If n and p are both odd numbers, which of the following numbers must be an even number? (1) n+p (2) np (3) np+2 (4) n+p+1 Q.138 There are 30 socks in a drawer. 60% of the socks are red and the rest are blue. What is the minimum number of socks that must be taken from the drawer without looking in order to be certain that at least two blue socks have been chosen? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 14 (4) 20 Q.139 If x2 – y2 = 15 and x + y = 3, then x – y is (1) -3 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 5 Q.140 The ratio of chickens to pigs to horses on a farm can be expressed as the triple ratio 20 : 4 : 6. If there are 120 chickens on the farm, then the number of horses on the farm is (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4) 36 Q.141 The hexagon ABCDEF is regular. That means all its sides are the same length and all its interior angles are the same size. Each side of the hexagon is 2 m. What is the area of the rectangle BCEF? (1) 4 m2 (2) 4π3– m2 (3) 8 m2 (4) 4+4π3– m2 Q.142 A worker is digging a ditch. He gets 2 assistants who work 2/3 as fast as he does. If all 3 work on a ditch they should finish it in what fraction of the time that the worker takes working alone? (1) 3/7 (2) 1/2 (3) 3/4 (4) 4/3 Q.143 C is a circle with centre D and radius 2. E is a circle with centre F and radius R. Are there any points which are on both E and C?A : The distance from D to F is 1 + RB : R = 3 (1) if statement ‘A’ alone is sufficient to answer the problem. (2) if statement ‘B’ alone is sufficient to answer the problem. (3) if statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are together needed to answer the problem. (4) if statements ‘A and ‘B’ are not sufficient to answer the problem. Q.144 The total number of poor in 2000 is approximately Directions: The bar graph below pertains to estimates of incidence of poverty in India. It is given as percentage. The accompanying table gives population of India during 1971-2001 as per census. (1) 268 millions. (2) 278 millions. (3) 242 millions (4) 300 millions. Q.145 From the given data it can be inferred that (1) rural poverty ratio is constantly declining. (2) urban poverty ratio has been consistently falling. (3) combined ratio has been decreasing. (4) All these. Q.146 Should telecasting feature films be stopped? The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the given arguments is a “strong’ argument. Give your answer asArguments :I Yes, the feature films misguide young children.II No, this is the only way to educate the masses. (1) if only argument I is strong. (2) if the argument II is strong. (3) if both I and II are strong. (4) if neither I nor II is strong. Q.147 AEZ : EIY : IOX : ……………… Find out the correct group of letters from the answer options (1) to (4) to represent the same relationship among the group of letters as established among the sets at the top. (1) UYZ (2) AEX (3) EIX (4) OUW Q.148 Isha is older than Sunder. Misa is older than Harbans. Harbans is younger than Gyan. Sunder and Gyan are of the same age. If the above facts are true, which of the following conditions must also be true? (1) Misa is older than Gyan. (2) Misa is older than Isha. (3) Sunder is younger than Misa. (4) Isha is older than Harbans. Q.149 Every minister is a student. Every student is inexperienced.A : Every minister is inexperienced.B : Some inexperienced are students. (1) if only inference A follows. (2) if only inference B follows. (3) if both inferences A and B follow. (4) if neither inference A nor B follows. Q.150 Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is (1) blue. (2) violet. (3) red. (4) orange. Q.151 What does the acronym CTBT stand for? Add description here! (1) Continued Test Ban Treaty (2) Commercial Tax Based Tariff (3) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (4) None of these Q.152 Which newspaper has the motto – Journalism of Courage? (1) The Hindustan Times (2) The Washington Post (3) The Indian Express (4) The Guardian Q.153 The Indian Railways is one of the largest railway systems with an extensive network of over 63,000 route kilometers. Approximately ……………..of the network is electrified. (1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 45 % (4) 60% Q.154 The National Literacy Mission (NLM) seeks to achieve full literacy i.e. a sustainable threshold level of 75% literacy by year (1) 2005 (2) 2010 (3) 2015 (4) None of these Q.155 In a certain code ROAD is written as URDG. How is SWAN written in that code? (a) UXDQ (b) VZDQ (c) VXDQ (d) VZCQ Q.156 Which of the following will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following sequence? 6C7,8F10, 11J14, 15O19,? (a) 25U20 (b) 20U25 (c) 20U24 (d) 19U25 Q.157 Ram walks 10m South from his house, turns left and walks 23 m, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach his school. In which direction is the school from his house? (a) East (b) North-East (c) South-West (d) North Q.158 If table is called chair, chair is called cot, cot is called pot and pot is called filter, where does a person sit? (a) pot (b) cot (c) chair (d) filter Q.159 Off-hand is related to PERFUNCTORY, in the same way as above, Board is related to (a) Guide (b) Honesty (c) Integrity (d) Competition Q.160 In a class of 35 students, Kiran is placed 7th from the bottom whereas Mohan is placed 9th from the top. Sohan is placed exactly in between Kiran and Mohan. What is Kiran’s position from Sohan? (a) 13th (b) 11th (c) 10th (d) 9th Q.161 If the second, third, fifth, eighth and ninth letters of the word CONTEMPLATION are combined to form a meaningful word, what will be the middle letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is X and if no such words can be formed your answer is Y. (a) A (b) O (c) X (d) Y Q.162 Pointing to a photograph Arun said, ‘She is the mother of my brother’s son’s wife’s daughter.’ How is Arun related to the lady? (a) Uncle (b) Daughter-in-law (c) Cousin (d) None of these Q.163 Which one is different from the remaining three? Add description here! (a) GIJK (b) DFGH (c) CEFG (d) ABCD Q.164 ABCD is related to OPQR in the same way as WXYZ is related to (a) EFGH (b) STUV (c) KLMN (d) QRST Q.165 The letters skipped between adjacent letters are the order of 1,2,3,4 Which alternative follows this rule? (a) DEIMR (b) DFlNR (c) DFIMR (d) DFIMS Q.166 A boy goes to see a film and finds a man who is his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy? (a) Brother (b) Nephew (c) Uncle (d) None of these Q.167 I am facing west. I turn 45° in the clockwise direction and then 180° in the same direction and then 270° anticlockwise. Which direction am I facing now? (a) South-West (b) South (c) West (d) North-west Q.168 In a month of 31 days, the third Wednesday falls on the 15th. What will be the last day of that month? (a) Fifth Thursday (b) Fifth Wednesday (c) Fourth Sunday (d) Fifth Friday Q.169 When Ranjeev was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was 25 years older than his sister. If Ranjeev’s brother is 6 years older than Ranjeev and his mother is 3 years younger than his father, how old was Ranjeev’s sister when he was born? (a) 15 years (c) 7 years (d) 10 years Q.170 In a party everyone gave a gift to everyone else. If the total number of gifts exchanged in the party was 600, how many persons were there in the party? (a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 25 Q.171 After a get-together every person present shakes the hand of every other person. If there were 105 handshakes in all, how many persons were present in the party? (a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 13 (d) 16 Q.172 Four friends were playing a game of cards sitting in a circle. Shankar was on the right of Ram and Gopal was on the left of Arvind. Which of the following pairs were partners? (a) Ram and Shankar (b) Gopal and Shankar (c) Ram and Arvind (d) Gopal and Ram Q.173 There are 30 plants of Chiku, Guava, Sitafal and Mango in a row. There is one pair of Mango plants after Chiku and Guava and Mango plants are followed by one Chiku and one Sitafal plant and so on. If the row begins with a plant of Chiku, then which of the following will be the last in the row? (a) Guava (b) Mango (c) Chiku (d) Sitafal Q.174 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower, from the top and the foot of a pole of height 10 m, are 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the tower is (a) 20 m (b) 15m (c) 10m (d) None of these Q.175 A person standing on the bank of a river finds that the angle of elevation of the top of a tower on the opposite bank is 45°. Then which of the following statements is correct? (a) The breadth of the river is half of the height of the tower. (b) The breadth of the river and the height of the tower are the same. (c) The breadth of the river is twice the height of the tower (d) None of these Q.176 A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree on the opposite bank of the river is 60° and when he walks 40 metres away from the tree the angle of elevation becomes 30°. The breadth of the river is (a) 20 m (b) 30 m (c) 40 m (d) 60 m Q.177 A class consists of 100 students; 25 of them are girls and 75 boys; 20 of them are rich and the remaining poor; 40 of them are fair-complexioned. The probability of selecting a fair- complexioned rich girl is (a) 0.05 (b) 0.04 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.08 Q178. A box contains 5 brown and 4 white socks. A man takes out two socks. The probability that they are of the same colour is Q.179 India plays two matches each with West Indies and Australia. In any match the probabilities of India getting points 0, 1 and 2 are 0.45, 0.05 and 0.50 respectively. Assuming that the outcomes are independent, the probability of India getting at least 7 points is (a) 0.0624 (b) 0.0875 (c) 0.8750 (d) 0.0250 Q.180 Out of 13 applications for a job, there are 5 women and 8 men. It is desired to select 2 persons for the job. The probability that at least one of the selected persons will be a woman is Add description here! Q.181 At a college entrance examination each candidate is admitted or rejected according to whether he has passed or failed the tests. Of the candidates who are really capable, 80% pass the tests and of the incapable, 25% pass the tests. Given that 40% of the candidates are really capable, then the proportion of capable college students is about (a) 73% (b) 70% (c) 68% (d) 75% Q.182 In an examination, there were 2000 candidates, out of which 900 candidates were boys and the rest were girls. 1f 32% of the boys and 38% of the girls passed, then the total percentage of failed candidates is (a) 68.5% (b) 64.7% (c) 35.3% (d) 70% Q.183 From the salary of an officer, 10% is deducted as house rent, 15% of the rest he spends on children’s education and 10% of the balance he spends on clothes. After this expenditure he is left with Rs 1377. His salary is (a) Rs 2100 (b) Rs 2040 (c) Rs 2000 (d) Rs 2200 Q.184 If the price of gold increases by 30%, find by how much the quantity of ornaments must be reduced so that the expenditure may remain the same as before. Q.185 A monthly return railway ticket costs 25 per cent more than a single ticket. A week’s extension can be had for the former by paying 5 per cent of the monthly ticket’s cost. If the money paid for the monthly ticket (with extension) is Rs 84, the price of the single ticket is (a) Rs 64 (b) Rs 80 (c) Rs 48 (d) Rs 72 Q.186 A papaya tree was planted 2 years ago. It increases at the rate of 20% every year. If at present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was its height when the tree was planted? (a) 400 cm (b) 375 cm (c) 324 cm (d) 432 cm Q.187 A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water should be added to this so that water may be 20% in the new mixture? (a) 6.5 litres (b) 5.5 litres (c) 4 litres (d) 5 litres Q.188 The amount of water (in ml) that should be added to reduce 9 ml lotion, containing 50% alcohol, to a lotion containing 30% alcohol, is (a) 5 ml (b) 4 ml (c) 3 ml (d) 6 ml Q.189 The average of marks obtained by 120 candidates was 35. If the average of the passed candidates was 39 and that of the failed candidates was 15, then the number of those candidates who passed the examination, was (a) 120 (b) 110 (c) 100 (d) 150 Q.190 Angad was conducting an experiment in which the average of 11 observations came to be 90, while the average of first five observations was 87, and that of the last five was 84. What is the measure of the 6th observation? (a) 145 (b) 150 (c) 165 (d) 135 Q.191 The average age of an adult class is 40 years. 12 new students with an average age of 32 years join the class, thereby decreasing the average by 4 years. The original strength of the class was (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 15 Q.192 The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men aged 35 years and 45 years are substituted by two women. The average age of these two women is (a) 52 years (b) 56 years (c) 48 years (d) 44 years Q.193 At Narmada Sarovar Bachao (NSB) demonstration, supporters of Ms Patkar outnumbered the police by 9 : 1. The police arrested 135 NSB supporters averaging 5 for every 3 policemen. How many supporters of NSB were there in the demonstration? (a) 1215 (b) 665 (c) 405 (d) None of the above Q.194 Which of the following is the lightest in weight? A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.(i) A weighs twice as much as B.(ii) B weighs four and- a-half times as much as C.(iii) C weighs half as much as D.(iv) D weighs half as much as E.(v) E weighs less than A but more than C. (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D Q.195 E is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles? A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.(i) A weighs twice as much as B.(ii) B weighs four and- a-half times as much as C.(iii) C weighs half as much as D.(iv) D weighs half as much as E.(v) E weighs less than A but more than C. (a) A, C (c) A, B (c) A, B Q.196 E is heavier than which of the following two articles? A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.(i) A weighs twice as much as B.(ii) B weighs four and- a-half times as much as C.(iii) C weighs half as much as D.(iv) D weighs half as much as E.(v) E weighs less than A but more than C. (a) A, C (b) D, C (c) D, B (d) A, B Q.197 Which of the following articles is the heaviest in weight? A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.(i) A weighs twice as much as B.(ii) B weighs four and- a-half times as much as C.(iii) C weighs half as much as D.(iv) D weighs half as much as E.(v) E weighs less than A but more than C. (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D Q.198 Given below are pairs of events I and II. Read both the events and decide the relationship. Assume that the information given is true in deciding the answer. Mark answer asEvent (I): The price of gold has gone up in the local Event (II): Indians have won several prizes in designing gold ornaments.Event (II): Indians have won several prizes in designing gold ornaments. (a) if I is an effect but II is not its immediate and principal cause. (b) if I is the immediate and principal cause and II is its effect. (c) if I is an effect and II is its immediate and principal cause. (d) if II is an effect but I is not its immediate and principal cause. Q.199 Given below are pairs of events I and II. Read both the events and decide the relationship. Assume that the information given is true in deciding the answer. Mark answer asEvent (I): Today, the prime ministers of countries P and Q have decided to take steps to improve bilateral relations.Event (II): Next week a committee of foreign ministers and senior officers of country P and Q will work out further steps to improve the (a) if I is an effect but II is not its immediate and principal cause. (b) if I is the immediate and principal cause and II is its effect. (c) if I is an effect and II is its immediate and principal cause. (d) if II is an effect but I is not its immediate and principal cause. Q.200 Given below are pairs of events I and II. Read both the events and decide the relationship. Assume that the information given is true in deciding the answer. Mark answer as (I): Recently the prices of the personal computers (PCs) have comeEvent (II): Some school-children are showing keen interest in learning computers. (a) if I is an effect but II is not its immediate and principal cause. (b) if I is the immediate and principal cause and II is its effect. (c) if I is an effect and II is its immediate and principal cause. (d) if II is an effect but I is not its immediate and principal cause. Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451 Time's up