UG CLAT-1 Thanks For Submitting Your Details. You Can Start Your Test Now!! Name Mobile No. Email City State Country Course 1.To address the challenge of Climate Change, Developing countries urgently require: (a) Implementation of National Adaptation Plans (b) Adoption of short term plans (c) Adoption of technological solutions (d) Imposition of Climate Change tax 2. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate changes. Select the option that contains the correct answer. Their dependence on natural resources Geographical attributes Lack of financial resources Lack of Traditional knowledge Codes: (a) (2), (3) and (4) (b) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (c) (3) only (d) (1), (2) and (3) 3.Which of the following is against the idea portrayed in the passage? (a) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts is necessary. (b) The process of Adaptation to climate change does not take into account the factor of prevailing national circumstances. (c) Social dimensions of climate change also need to be appreciated. (d) Combining Traditional Knowledge with appropriate technology is the need of the hour. 4.The Traditional Knowledge should be used through (a) Improvement in national circumstances (b) Synergy between Government and local interventions (c) Imposition of Climate Change Tax. (d) Its dissemination 5.What is the meaning of the word ‗Resilience‘ occurring in the passage? a) Toughness b) Fragility c) Flexibility d) Vulnerability 6.What is the Central Idea being conveyed by the Author in the passage above? a) Modern Social Networking platforms must take the lead in regulating young people from using these platforms for sexual abuse. b) It is significant to educate children and youngsters about gender equality. c) Digital Platforms need to have a zero tolerance policy towards content leading to sexual abuse. d) None of the above. 7.As per author, why is this incident a wake-up call for parents? a) Because even the parents are indulged heavily in social networking platforms. b) Because parents have failed to stop their children from committing such blunders. c) Because it is the primary responsibility of parents to control their children. d) Because the parents have failed in educating their children regarding fair internet usage and have simply invested in the technology driven education of their children. 8.According to the author, in order to understand the root cause of such insensitive incidents, it is important to: a) Understand and examine the kind of socialisation process these children are exposed to. b) Adopt Artificial Intelligence driven technologies. c) Strengthen the environment of discipline in schools and colleges. d) All of the above. 9.On the basis of your reading of the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred? a) Sexual Offenses can be reduced by timely counselling from parental and quasi-parental authorities i.e., parents and teachers respectively b) If digital platforms implement a Zero Tolerance Policy towards such a menace, sexual offenses can be completely stopped. c) Investment in education of children is enough to curb the menace. d) All of the above. 10.Which of the following words are synonymous with the word ‗Spouting‘? a) Pouring b) Streaming c) Erupting d) All of the Above. 11.Which of the following suggests a synonymous meaning to the words ‗Providence‘ and ‗Crescendo‘ respectively? a) Nemesis, Apex b) Zenith, Nadir c) Laxity, Prudence d) Short-sightedness, Upsurge 12.The passage has been adorned with numerous figure of speeches. Which of the following combinations is correct? a) Irony and Sarcasm b) Alliteration and Pun c) Simile and Personification d) Metaphor and Onomatopoeia 13.The passage best demonstrates which one of the following motifs of Cat‘s Life? a) To satisfy the pangs of hunger b) To survive the harsh winters c) A never ending wait d) To hunt for Rabbit 14.The Author‘s description of ―...he was under no constraint of human will, for he was living alone...‖ implies: a) Cat‘s absolute freedom from everything b) Cat‘s no association with human beings c) Cat‘s loneliness d) Cat‘s tyrannical demeanour 15.The lines, ―...but he never faltered and never once cried. He had nothing to gain from crying, and everything to lose...‖, suggest that the Cat is: a) Reflective b) Apologetic c) Resilient d) Frustrated 16.Why has the author lost interest in human beings? a) Because they make the author suffer. b) Because the human beings do not bring with them the warmth and the comfort which comes naturally with the night, starts and the wind c) Because human beings are not mysterious. d) All of the above. 17.The author has compared the night with: a) The Katydids b) The Necromancer‘s spell c) Stars d) All of the above. 18.Why has the author called the ‗katydids‘ wise? a) Because they sing a slumber song. b) Because they tell the author to only ‗sleep‘. c) Because they do not indulge in unnecessary and unimportant talks. d) Because they are not fools. 19. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? a) Being close to nature can bring one closer to God. b) Nature is just a mystery c) Books and Man are both detestable. d) None of these. 20.Which of the following words from the passage mean ‗rough‘? a) Solemn b) Caressing c) Coarse d) Slumber 21. Why do you think, has the Author called the trial, ‗strangest‘ murder trial he ever attended? a) Because the accused had a very strange personality. b) Because, despite having a potential witness and evidence against the accused, his wrong could not be proved. c) Because, Mrs. Salmon‘s evidence could not be proved before the Court. d) None of these. 22. ―…his eyes suffused with horrifying and brutal fear, like an animal's when you raise a whip.‖ can be called as: a) Personification b) Simile c) Onomatopoeia d) None of the above 23. The expression ‗Pekingese eyes‟ used in the passage refers to which of the following? a) Bulging eyes b) Red eyes c) Small eyes d) None of them 24. Why was Mrs. Salmon convinced that the man she saw had committed the crime? a) Because she saw the man on the steps of Mrs. Parker‘s House and he was wearing gloves. b) Because he had a hammer in his hand and she saw him drop it into the laurel bushes by the front gate. c) Because when he looked up at her window, his eyes were suffused with horrifying and brutal fear. d) Because she had seen him clearly in the light of street lamp. 25. Who was murdered in the scene described in the passage? a) Mrs. Wheeler b) Mrs. Parker c) Mrs. Salmon a) It cannot be inferred. 26. Which one of the following words from the passage means ‗unavoidable‘? a) Inexorable b) Myriad c) Excruciatingly d) Bandwagon 27. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? a) It is time to unleash the full potential of Telemedicine. b) It is time to unleash the full potential of Telemedicine with cognisance of its possible flaws. c) Technology has not been utilised to its fullest to suit the current needs. d) People should not be skeptical about the advantages of telemedicine. 28. Which of the following is a significant factor contributing in slow employment of Telemedicine in India? a) Telemedicine was never employed in India. b) There was an absence of regulations regarding the use of telemedicine consultations and medication systems. c) Telemedicinal Society of India failed in its efforts to promote the importance of such a system in the country. d) All of the above 29. Telecommunication based medication has the potential for an easy outreach because: a) Pilot experiments in telemedicine have been proved to be successful b) It helps in easier communication of medical images from one place to another. c) It helps in securing sensitive medical information. d) All of the above. 30. What is the meaning of the expression ‗Shot in the arm‘ used in the passage? a) Hitting the nail on its head. b) Bull‘s Eye c) Positive Impact on something d) All of the above. 31. The Government announced a stimulus package under the Self Reliant India Scheme for the amount of . (a) 2 trillion (b) 20 trillion (c) 5 trillion (d) 100 trillion 32. Which of the following is not a goal of the stimulus package announced under the ―Atmanirbhar‖ India? (a) It will help in alleviating the distress of migrants when they return to their villages (b) It will help in achieving the goal of a self-sustainable rural economy. (c) It would boost the One Nation One Market objective and help India to become the food factory of the world. (d) It will help in elevating quality of life in urban areas. 33. Which of the following events can be seen as the stepping stone for the growth of the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India? (a) The launch of ‗Make in India‘ initiative in 2014. (b) The Economic liberalisation in the year 1991. (c) The Amendment in the FDI policy to increase the upper cap from 26% to 49%. (d) All of the above. 34. Which of the following is not related to the ―Vocal for Local‖ initiative of the Indian Government? (a) Rebooting the MSMEs especially the Khadi and village industries. (b) Generating new opportunities of employment at the local level. (c) Creating new economic hubs through disinvestment and FDIs. (d) Promoting the indigenous manufacture and support through financial aid. 35. Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline, the Government plans to invest more than Rs. 102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by 2024-25, with the Centre, States and the private sector to share the capital expenditure. What is the ratio of such expenditure by each of the stake holders? (a) 50:25:25 (b) 40:40:20 (c) 39:39:22 (d) 34:33:33 36. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the above passage? (a) $ 537 (b) $ 498 (c) $ 502 (d) $ 756 37. Which of the following economic policies have been recently used by the RBI to boost the economy during the current Pandemic situation? (a) FOREX SWAP (b) LTROs (Long Term Repo Operations) (c) OMOs (Open Market Operations) (d) All of the above. 38. Which of the following statements relate to the Long Term Repo Operations as measure to support the economy in corona pandemic situations? (a) It is a measure that is expected to bring down short-term rates and also boost investment in corporate bonds. (b) It would encourage banks to undertake maturity transformation smoothly and seamlessly so as to augment credit flows to productive sectors. (c) It will enhance liquidity in the banking system by Rs 1 trillion. (d) All of the above. 39. Which of the following will be used as a platform for core banking solutions to implement the LTRO? (a) E-cartel (b) E-kuber (c) E-CBS (d) E-RBICBS 40. What is the notified amount of sum offered by the RBI under measures of the Foreign Exchange Swap? (a) $ 5 billion (b) $ 16.71 billion (c) $ 16.21 billion (d) $ 5.02 billion 41. The Rafale deal between India and France is seen to carry great strategic significance. Which of the following is directly impacted by this deal? (a) The Joint Strategic Vision of India-France Cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region. (b) The one belt one road mission of the China. (c) The Chinese initiative to build a new Silk route. (d) The trade route of the Middle East. 42. The Indian Air Force is also in the process of procuring a new generation medium-range modular air-to-ground weapon system Hammer to integrate with the Rafale jets. What does the term Hammer stands for? (a) Highly Advanced Modular Mutation Extended Range. (b) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range. (c) Highly Advanced Modular Mitigation Extended Rafale. (d) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Rafale. 43. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the passage? (a) LAMSCO (b) LUAD Defence France (c) DASSAULT (d) BORESCOPE 44. Which of the following indigenous organisations is responsible for the design, assembly and fabrication of combat aircrafts in India? (a) DRDO (b) HAL (c) DRAI (d) ISRO 45. Which of the following organisations/institutions is a major offset partner of India in the Rafale Deal? (a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (b) Reliance Defence Limited (c) Reliance Naval and Engineering Limited (d) Pipavav Defence 46. Which of the following incidents can be seen as the direct cause of the border dispute between India and Nepal? (a) The Defence Minister inaugurated a motor-able link road that connects India and China. (b) The 2015 agreement between India and China for using the Lipulekh pass for trade. (c) India published a new map which showed the region of Kalapani as part of the Indian Territory. (d) All of the above. 47. The confusion between Nepal and India consists of a dispute over a trijunture of . (a) Kali – Susta – Ganga. (b) Kalapani – Saraswati – Ganga. (c) Kalapani – Limpiyadhura – Lipulekh. (d) Kalapani – Limpiyadhura – Kali. 48. The treaty of Sugauli was signed between which of the following pairs? (a) India and Nepal (b) United kingdom, India and Nepal (c) India, China and Nepal. (d) East India Company and Nepal 49. Recently Nepal has issued a map claiming Lipulekh pass as part of its territory included in the district of: (a) Kailali (b) Darchula (c) Dipayal (d) Doti 50. Which of the following rivers is called as Narayani River in Nepal? (a) Bramhaputra (b) Gandak (c) Ganga (d) Kali 51. Which of the following statements are not true in relation to the changes envisioned by the NEP 2020? (a) The NEP 2020 aims at making India a global knowledge superpower. (b) The renaming of the Ministry of Human Resource Development to the Ministry of Education. (c) The development of National Course Curriculum to provide new curriculum by 2021. (d) The New Education Policy aims to facilitate an inclusive, participatory and holistic approach 52. The NEP 2020 aims to provide a holistic change to the current education system in India. Which of the following is not related to the aim of NEP 2020? (a) Universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio. (b) To bring 20 million out of school children back into the mainstream through an open schooling system. (c) Vocational Education to start from Class 6 with Internships. (d) To achieve 80% Gross Enrolment Ratio at the under graduate level. 53. Which of the following is proposed as a change in the structure of institutions responsible for affiliation and accreditation under the NEP 2020? (a) Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be set up as a single umbrella body for the entire higher education. (b) University Grant Commission to be renamed as AICTE. (c) National Affiliation and Accreditation Council to be renamed as National Standard Council of India. (d) National Council for Education Research and Teaching to be renamed as BCERT 54. Which of the following is not a vertical under the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)? (a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC) (b) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC) (c) National Educational Council (NEC) (d) National Accreditation Council (NAC) 55. What is the proposed percentage of expenditure for education out of GDP under the NEP 2020? (a) 11 percent (b) 6 percent (c) 4.6 percent (d) 9 percent 56. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the passage? (a) Prime Minister (b) Minister of Finance (c) Minister of External Affairs (d) Minister of Home Affairs 57. Which of the following Nations is part of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation? (a) Indonesia (b) Thailand (c) Myanmar (d) Maldives 58. Which of the following has been replaced by [5] in the passage? (a) Russia (b) China (c) Japan (d) Pakistan 59. India had not agreed to attend a summit hosted in Pakistan, but it remains an important promoter of the SAARC process. In which of the following years the SAARC leaders‘ summit was held lately? 2018 2014 2016 2019 60. The above passage mentions about Pakistan‘s Special Advisor on National Security Moeed Yusuf using a map of Pakistan claiming Indian Territory. Which of the following territory is in context here? (a) Junagadh (b) Aksai Chin (c) Pangong Tso (d) Limpiyadhura 61. The US is seen as a major role player in the peace deal between Israel and UAE. Which of the following is not a reason for the involvement of US in the deal? (a) The deal grants a diplomatic win to the US President Donald Trump ahead of the Presidential election. (b) The efforts of the USA to bring the war in Afghanistan to an end have not been a success yet. (c) The efforts of USA to bring peace between Israel and the Palestinians have not been successful yet. (d) The deal gives a central strategic rule to USA in the Middle East. 62. Which of the following is true in relation to the stake of Palestine in the peace deal between UAE and Israel? (a) Israel has recognised Palestine as an Independent Nation. (b) This can be an opportunity for the Palestine to establish diplomatic relations with Israel. (c) The deal marks both a win and setback to the Israel-Palestine relations. (d) A peace treaty would also be signed between Israel and Palestine. 63. Which of the following is not a direct impact of the peace deal in the Middle East region? The deal smoothens the UAE‘s international campaign to be seen as a beacon of tolerance in the Middle East. (b) It puts the UAE as leader in a regional power dynamics among neighbouring Gulf Arab states. (c) The deal gives Netanyahu a domestic boost at a time when Israel‘s coalition government is in crisis due to coalition compulsions. (d) The deal marks a historic day and a significant step towards peace in the Middle East. 64. The peace deal between Israel and UAE can also be seen as a great opportunity for India in the Middle East region. Which of the following is not related to strategic goals of India in the Middle East? (a) India should revamp its defence and security relations with the UAE. (b) India should move fast to capture the extended neighbourhood market before it comes under the influence of China. (c) India should ensure space for Iran in any future security deal in the region. (d) None of the above. 65. Which of the following is correct? (a) Israel does not have a Constitution. (b) Israeli Constitution is like ordinary law. (c) There is no Constitution but a Basic Law of 1950. (d) Israel has a Constitution of 1967. 66. Israel is a theocratic Jewish state but it follows legal pluralism. Accordingly it has: (a) Jewish Courts to decide cases of all religious communities. (b) Secular Courts will apply Uniform Civil Code in respect of all communities. (c) Each religious community has its own Religious Court to deal with Personal law disputes. (d) No distinction between Personal law and Public law. 67. Based on the Author‘s argument in passage above, which of the following is correct? a) Force Majeure Clauses, generally have a uniform impact on the performance of Contracts in all the cases. b) The Impact on the performance of Contracts by the usage of Force Majeure Clauses is dependent upon the way such clauses have been constructed in a particular Contract. c) Both Force Majeure and Material Adverse Change Clauses have similar impact on the performance of Contracts. d) All of the above. 68. Imagine, there is a domestic commercial Contract for supply of certain goods for certain price between A and B. However, in pursuance of the same, both A and B forget to negotiate and agree on the terms of a Force Majeure event and the Contractual document does not contain the Force Majeure clause. In such a situation, what would be the fate of the Contract in the event like that of COVID 19? a) As the parties did not negotiate on the Force Majeure Clause, either of them cannot take an exception to the Breach of Contract. b) The parties can invoke the Material Adverse Change Clause. c) In absence of such clauses in the Contract, the Courts may resort to the applicable law, i.e., the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to give relief to the parties d) None of the above 69. In the same fact situation as mentioned above with a modification that there is a Force Majeure Clause in the Contract between A and B, let us suppose, that B, who was to supply goods to A on certain date and time, faced issues in relation to procurement of goods due to mill strike and also because of rise in prices of goods. In this case, can B claim the suspension of performance of Contract on the basis of the Force Majeure Clause? a) Yes, B can, depending upon the way, the Force Majeure Clause is worded. b) Such situation cannot be covered under Force Majeure as it is just a case of disappointed expectations and hence B cannot invoke the clause. It is merely a case of commercial hardship. c) B can invoke the Force Majeure clause as the clause is too broad to cover such situations. d) None of the above. 70. Typically, the MAE (Material Adverse Change) provision in an agreement contemplates events which if they occur, or are likely occur, would have a ―materially adverse change or effect on the assets, business, property, liabilities, financial condition, results, operations of the target‖ or that ―affects the ability of the transacting parties to consummate the transaction‖ or the ―validity or enforceability of the transacting parties to its rights and remedies under the transaction documents‖. Which of the following sample clauses in a contract resembles an MAE clause? a) ―In the event either party is unable to perform its obligations under the terms of this agreement because of Act of God, strikes, equipment of transmission failure or damage reasonably beyond its control, such party shall not be liable for damages to the other for any damages resulting from such failure to perform…‖ b) ―Except with respect to payment obligations under this agreement, no party shall be liable for, nor such party shall be considered in breach of this agreement due to, any failure to perform its obligations under this agreement as a result of cause beyond its control, including any earthquake, labour problem, unavailability of supplies…‖ c) Both of the above. d) None of the above. 71. A, daily local newspaper called ‗Ramanand Bazar Patrika‘ having wide circulation in Anandnagar published, on 1st July, 2019, an article with a picture of Boris Becker, a world renowned Tennis player, posing nude with his dark-skinned fianc e by name Barbara Feltus, a film actress, which was photographed by none other than her father. The article states that, in an interview, both Boris Becker and Barbara Feltus spoke freely about their engagement, their lives and future plans and the message they wanted to convey to the people at large, for posing to such a photograph. Article picturises Boris Becker as a strident protester of the pernicious practice of ―Apartheid‖. Further, it was stated that the purpose of the photograph was also to signify that love champions over hatred. Will the alleged picture classify as an Obscene Material in India? a) No, according to the Hicklin Test, it will not classify as Obscene. b) Yes, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will classify as Obscene. c) No, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will not classify as Obscene. d) Both (a) and (c). 72. The difference between Hicklin Test and Community Standards Test is: a) The former focuses on the susceptibility of the minds of individuals to get corrupted while the later hinges upon the context, intended meaning and contemporaneous socio-cultural environment of the society. b) As per Hicklin Test, a nude picture of a women per se can be obscene while as per the later, the picture should be suggestive of deprave mind and designed to excite sexual passion in persons who are likely to see it. c) The former considers Obscenity as a changing concept with changing times while the later does not. d) All of the above. 73. The issue of ‗Obscenity‘ is fundamentally related with which of the following? a) Freedom of Religion of an individual. b) Freedom of Speech and Expression of an individual. c) Right to Privacy of an individual. d) All of the above. 74. Consider the following situations. Choose the correct option as per the Hicklin‘s Test. A Movie scene where there are rows of Jewish naked men and women, shown frontally, being led into the Gas Chambers of Nazi Concentration Camp. Not only they are about to die but they are stripped off their basic dignity in the last moments of their life. The controversial movie scene of Phoolan Devi, the Bandit queen where she is paraded naked and made to draw water from the well within the circle of a hundred a) 1 is Obscene but 2 is not. b) 2 is Obscene but 1 is not. c) Both 1 and 2 are Obscene. d) Neither 1 and 2 are Obscene. 75. An activist, while being semi-nude, allowed her body to be used as a canvas to paint on by her two minor children who were properly clothed. She uploaded this video of hers on an online platform with a message that she intended to normalise the female form for her children and not allow distorted ideas about sexuality to pervade their mind. An advocate who sees the video, registers a case of Obscenity against her. Is it a case of Obscenity as per the Community Standards Test? a) This is a pure case of Obscenity and she is spreading it. b) This is a pure case of Obscenity as well as Child Pornography as her children were exposed to her nudity. c) This is not a case of Obscenity because as per the Community Standards Test the video must not be seen in isolation but in the contextual set up of the message that the activist has put on normalisation of a female‘s sexuality. d) This is a case of Obscenity as per the Community Standards Test as the video was blatantly obscene. 76. Under which of the following principles, will the company LG Polymers be liable? a) Polluter Pays Principle b) Strict Liability c) Absolute Liability d) All of the above 77. As per the Polluter Pays Principle, LG Polymers will be liable to pay: a) Amount of Money for restoration of environment only. b) Amount of Money for restoration of environment and compensation to Individuals who suffered the loss. c) Compensation to the victims. d) None of the above. 78. A company ABC limited operates an industrial chemical plant in the city of Azadnagar. Due to an earthquake on July 22, 2020, the valves of the reactors in the plant get damaged due to which the operators could not properly transport the hazardous gas for chemical vaporisation, resulting in the gas leakage. The gas leakage resulted in the death of 12 workers of the plant and also some people living nearby the Plant. In this situation, in order to decipher the liability of ABC Limited, choose the best option: a) ABC Limited can be held liable under the principles of Strict and Absolute Liability and Polluter pays principle as well. b) ABC Limited can be held liable under the Polluter Pays Principle and the Principle of Absolute Liability, but can be exempted under the rule of Strict Liability. c) ABC Limited will not be held liable under any of the Principles. d) ABC Limited will be held liable under Strict and Absolute Liability principles but the Principle of ―Polluter Pays‖ will not be applicable to this situation. 79. The argument of LG Polymers that, they did not know that the Styrene Gas could leak: a) is a strong argument and can reduce their liability under the Polluter Pays Principle. b) is a strong argument and can reduce their liability under the Strict Liability Principle. c) is a weak argument and will not help in reducing the liability of LG Polymers under any of the principles. d) is a weak argument but may help in reducing their liability under the Strict Liability Principle. 80. XYZ is a company operating a Pesticide Factory in the city of Rampur. On one day, due to the negligence of Factory staff, there is a leakage of the Pesticide gas as a result of which, many pests and insects which feed on the plantation crops in the nearby farm are killed. There is no harm caused to the people living nearby or the workers of the Pesticide Factory. However, the leakage was so humungous that it reduced the quality of air in the city causing breathing problems for the people living around in the area. In this case, a) XYZ will be absolutely liable but not strictly liable. b) XYZ will not be liable under the Strict and Absolute liability principles because the leakage only killed the pests and insects. c) XYZ‘s liability under the Strict and Absolute liability principles will depend upon the inquiry as to whether the leaked pesticide gas was a hazardous substance/activity or chemical or not and; XYZ will be liable under the Polluter Pays Principle. d) XYZ will not be liable under the Polluter Pays Principle. 81. ―Nemo Judex in causa sua‖ or the principle that ‗No one can be a judge in his own case‘, relates to which of the following rule of the Natural Justice? (a) Bias rule (b) Reasoned decision rule (c) Hearing rule (d) All of the above. 82. Mr. X is a Public Servant, employed in a PSU and Mrs Y who is the wife of Mr. X is also an employee of the same PSU. Ms A files a complaint against Mr. X for sexual harassment at workplace before the ICC (Internal Complaints Committee), which is headed by Mrs Y. After completing her inquiry she held that Mr. X is guilty and recommended disciplinary proceedings against him. Now, on what grounds Mr. X may challenge her findings? (a) Mrs Y is an employee of the same institution and the inquiry should have been conducted by a person outside the institution. (b) The complaint was filed by a female employee, so the inquiry must have been conducted by a male employee. (c) Mrs Y is the wife of Mr. X and she holds a personal bias in the case, so the inquiry should not have been conducted by her. (d) Mr. X being the accused should have conducted the inquiry himself. 83. Mr. A is a judge and he is also the landlord of Mr. B, who resides in an apartment owned by Mr. A. Due to non-payment of rent for 3 consecutive months, Mr. A served an eviction notice to Mr. B. Now, choose the most appropriate option amongst the following. (a) Being a judge himself, Mr. A cannot issue such notice of eviction. (b) Mr. A can issue such notice because it is his duty as a Judge, apart from being a landlord. (c) Such notice is illegal as Mr. B was not given an opportunity to present his case. (d) Mr. A issued such notice in his personal capacity as a landlord and not being a judge. 84. Which of the following is not in violation of the principles of Natural justice? (a) Withholding of an increment of a public servant without giving him an opportunity to defend. (b) Non-renewal of a contract of employment of an employee after the period of contract is over. (c) Initiating a departmental inquiry against a public servant, without giving him an opportunity to submit representation during such inquiry. (d) All of the above. 85. On the basis of your understanding about Natural Justice in the passage above, state which of the following is true: a) Adherence to the reasoned decision rule is not required if other two rules are complied with. b) Compliance of bias rule itself rejects the need of the hearing and the reasoned decision rule. c) Principle of Natural Justice is incomplete without the compliance of any of its rules. d) The Reasoned Decision rule is a substitute for the bias rule. 86. Which of the following statements given below justifies criminalisation of Mob Lynching? (a) In a democracy the actual power rests with the people and their actions cannot be penalised by the state. (b) There is no law in India which specifically prohibits mob lynching and therefore it is a justified act of the people. (c) It is impossible to punish the wrongdoer in case of Mob Lynching. (d) Violence cannot be a tool to implement the will of the majority and such actions are failure of the state. 87. Which of the following statement justifies the criminalisation of mob lynching as a distinct offence apart from ‗Murder‘? (a) The offence of Murder is committed by a single individual or a group but mob lynching involves a large group of individuals. (b) When violence is committed by a mob it creates a situation of terror and anarchy having potential to disturb the public peace for a longer period. (c) Mob lynching is an offence which supports the idea of ‗might is right‘, and cannot be accepted in a democratic society. (d) All of the above. 88. The above passage states about the existence of rumours in the area regarding the thieves and dacoits robbing the villagers or committing child lifting. In the light of this proposition which if the following statement is correct? (a) The villagers should not be punished as there was a genuine mistake on their part. (b) The villagers should be punished as they do not have any right to punish any person unless he is an offender. (c) The villagers should be punished as no individual in the country is entitled to take law in his own hand and punish the wrongdoer. (d) The villagers should not be punished as they have the right of private defence against such incidents under which they can even kill a person. 89. In the light of the above passage which of the following incidents of mob violence would be justified? (a) A group of people committing violence against people who are selling meat of an animal considered to be sacred under their religious beliefs. (b) The residents of a boy‘s hostel caught a drug paddler selling drugs in their hostel and killed him by beating. (c) The villagers injured a woman by pelting stone on her considering her to be witch. (d) None of the above. 90. Assertion (A): Mob Lynching can be justified only in circumstances where the religious sentiments or feelings of a large group of people is associated. Reason (R): Religious sentiments and feelings are of paramount consideration for the state and should not be interfered with. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (b) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (c) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect (d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. 91. The above passage mentions about the Journalist‘s request to transfer the case to the CBI (Central Bureau of Investigation) for investigation. What could be the appropriate reason for such request? (a) The CBI is a central investigating agency and conducts more scientific investigation. (b) Where State government is an interested party, the investigation conducted by the state police, may be biased. (c) The FIRs relate to an offence of defamation of the President of a national party, so the matter should be investigated by the CBI. (d) None of the above. 92. The above passage quotes the observation of the Court in relation to freedom of speech and expression as, ―Questions you cannot answer are better than questions you cannot question.‖ Now, based on such observation, chose the most appropriate option which describes the scope of such questions. (a) The term ―questions‖ mentioned are not subject to limitations imposed upon the Freedom of Speech and Expression. (b) Those question are limited to the information warranted by the person. (c) The court is referring to the right to information through the above quote (d) The questions are also subject to limitations imposed upon the Freedom of Speech and Expression.(d) The questions are also subject to limitations imposed upon the Freedom of Speech and Expression. 93. It is an established principle of law that the offence of defamation (harming the reputation) has many exceptions and the imputation of truth is one of those, but the accused must prove that such imputation was true and also for the public good. In the light of this statement which of the following questions/statements are not defamatory? (a) An article published in a newspaper about the unaccounted property of a public servant in the form of a questionnaire. (b) A question to a female actress about her sexual relationship with a married man. (c) A question to a public servant about his extramarital relationship with a colleague. (d) An Article published in a magazine stating a female politician as ‗B grade‘ actress. 94. In the above passage, the Court ordered for the merging of different FIRs into one and the investigation to be conducted at Mumbai. What is the reason behind such order? (a) Multiple FIRs mean multiple investigations and the same might cause hardships to the accused. (b) The first FIR was registered at Mumbai and the investigation should be conducted at Mumbai. (c) The accused resides at Mumbai and the investigation should be conducted only at Mumbai. (d) Multiple FIRs are frivolous and there is only one cause of action. 95. Defamation is punishable: (a) Both as a Civil wrong as well as a Crime. (b) Only as a Civil wrong. (c) Only as a Criminal wrong. (d) None of the above. 96. A gang of six members went to a bank, armed with weapons to commit a heist. While five of the gang members went inside the bank, Mr. A (the sixth member) waited outside the bank to alert them on any threat. During the heist one of the gang members fired a gun at the branch manager, as a result he died. All five escaped but Mr. A was caught and arrested. Now, choose the most appropriate option as per the principle stated in the above passage. (a) Mr. A is not liable for murder as he was outside the bank and there was no common intention. (b) Mr. A along with all other members of the gang are liable for murder as there was common intention. (c) Only that person is liable for murder who actually fired the gun. (d) Mr. A is liable only for the heist and no other offence. 97.Raman and Raghav were riding on a motorcycle on a busy street, suddenly Aman (another biker) bumped into their bike. A heated argument started between the three of them. While Raghav started abusing Aman, Raman hit Aman with an iron rod lying on the road and as a consequence he died. Now, chose the correct option. (a) Both Raman and Raghav are liable for murder as there was a common intention developed on the spot. (b) Raghav is not liable for murder as there was no common intention to kill Aman. (c) No one is liable as Aman was a wrongdoer himself and he started the fight. (d) Only Raghav is liable for murder as he started abusing Aman. 98. After reading the passage which of the following is not correct in relation to the difference between Common and Similar intention? (a) Similar intention is developed prior to the commission of offence but the common intention is developed only at the time of commission of offence. (b) Under Common intention each of the offender is equally liable for the offence but under similar intention each of the offender is differently liable. (c) In order to determine the existence of Similar or Common intention, one must analyse the fact and circumstances of each case. (d) The boundary between Similar and Common intention is very fine and it may sometime overlap. 99. Mr. X and Mr. Y entered into a house at night to commit theft, while committing theft Mr. Y committed sexual assault on a minor girl of aged 11 years. Identify for which of the following offences Mr. X is liable for. (a) Both Theft and Sexual Assault as there was a Common intention (b) Only Theft as there was a Similar intention. (c) Only Theft as Mr. X had a different intention from Y. (d) He would not be liable for any offence. 100. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the difference between common intention and similar intention? The intention of the accused and co-accused can be inferred from the facts and circumstances of each case. (b) Under common intention, it is considered that all the accused have jointly committed the offence themselves and are jointly liable. (c) Each accused is liable for the offence he has actually committed, if the common intention cannot be proved. (d) All of the above. 101. The Parliament of India legislated the Sexual Harassment at Workplace Act, in the year 2013 and simultaneously some new offences were also added to the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Mr. A is an employee of an institution, against whom departmental enquiry has been initiated for committing sexual harassment of a female colleague in the year 2012. Now, choose the correct option. (a) Such inquiry is valid as per Article 20 (1) of the Constitution as the complaint was made after the act came into force. (b) Article 20 (1) will not be applicable as the matter does not relate to an offence. (c) As the Act was passed in the year 2013, any inquiry under such Act is invalid. (d) Only inquiry may be conducted but no penal action can be taken against him after such inquiry. 102. Article 20 (1) would not affect which of the following acts of the legislature? (a) Act of the legislature enhancing the term of imprisonment. (b) Act of the legislature enhancing the amount of fine. (c) Act of the legislature changing the punishment of death to life imprisonment. (d) Act of legislature changing the nature of imprisonment from simple to rigorous. 103. Mr. A is a student of Law, aged 19 years. He is socially active and expresses his opinion on every social and political event of the nation through social media platforms. In one of his blog, he severely criticised the policy of a state government of changing names of cities and towns. He also stated that the government is biased towards a particular religion. The said blog was posted on 19th April, 2020 and subsequently, an amendment was made to Indian Penal Code whereby ‗Hate Speech‘ was made a distinct offence and punishment was prescribed. An action was brought against him under the said provision for the blog. Now, choose the most appropriate option amongst the following (a) Mr. A may be liable for the offence of Hate speech as the blog was not removed even after the amendment. (b) Mr. A may be liable for the offence of Hate speech as Article 20 (1) does not cover such areas. (c) Mr. A may not be liable for the offence because the act was done before the amendment. (d) Mr. A may not be liable for the offence as his blog was innocent and a fair criticism. 104. Considering the fact situations given in the above question, the Parliament passes a legislation in September 2020, whereby an amendment is made to the Juvenile Act and now a person below the age of 20 would be a Juvenile and special procedure would be followed for his trial. Choose the most appropriate option amongst the following (a) Mr. A would not be considered as juvenile as it is prohibited under the scheme of Article 20 (1). (b) Mr. A would not be considered as juvenile because the amendment came after he committed the offence. (c) Mr. A would be considered a Juvenile and tried under the new procedure. (d) None of the above. 105. Considering the fact situation in the third question to this passage, the Parliament passes a legislation for the Probation of Offenders, under which any offender below the age of 21 will not serve the sentence of imprisonment in a prison, instead he will serve the sentence in a probation house. Now, choose the most appropriate option. (a) Mr. A will get the benefit of Probation of Offenders Act. (b) Mr. A will not get the benefit of Probation of Offenders act as it is prohibited by Article 20 (1) of the Constitution. (c) It is discretion of Mr. A to decide whether he wants such benefit or not. (d) None of the above. 106. Which of the following conveys the main idea expressed in the passage? a) Those who subscribe to newspapers are sceptics. b) Those who subscribe to newspapers and news channels often contribute in distortion of the truth. c) Social media journalism distorts the truth. d) All of the above. 107. In this line, ―Hence, when I talk about the digital information news environment, I am talking about how there needs to be a conducive atmosphere for credible information to resonate with the people‖ the Author assumes that: a) The Digital news is neither evidence based nor data driven. b) The Digital journalism does not help people in making informed choices. c) Both a) and b) d) The impact of Digital journalism has created an informed platform of journalism. 108. Which of the following strengthens the Author‘s argument? a) Conspiracy theories have become an alternative truth. b) The Pandemic is the only reason behind the dependence of people on Social media journalism. c) The News industry is witnessing a tremendous change. d) None of the above. 109. What does the Author indicate when he quotes that ―Rose coloured glasses always lead to unfair distortion‖? a) Digital Journalism is twisted. b) Author means to say that he does not have any disproportionate bias for analog journalism. c) Rosy picture of every news cannot be created. d) All of the above. 110. The Author has severely targeted and criticized which one of the following factors of Digital Journalism? a) Social Outreach b) Credibility of Information c) Lack of Information d) None of the above. 111. In the above passage, the author uses a/an to strengthen his argument. a) Metaphor b) Analogy c) Personification d) None of the above 112. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? a) State must not interfere at all with the individual‘s right to drink. b) Liberalism has always been misunderstood. c) It is very difficult to discuss any issue relating to personal freedom of individuals with rationality in India. d) None of the above. 113. Which of the following statements weakens the argument that Moralism on Alcohol cannot be the basis of State Policy? a) The State should not interfere with people‘s right to drink; but there will be a backlash if drinking takes forms that inflict great social harms. b) Freedom should not be divorced from Moderation. c) The State should not interfere in matters of sexuality or intimacy. But norms of freedom will impose serious costs and will not survive if the expressions of sexuality are consistently degrading or violent, as we have seen in the locker room scandals. d) All of the above. 114. Which of the following is true as per the passage above? a) Liberals should not be concerned about prohibition on Alcohol at all. b) Moralism should be based on justified ideals. c) Moralism must not be the basis of any State action. d) All of the above. 115. According to the passage, which of the following could be part of State‘s policy to regulate Alcohol use in India? Ban on Alcohol Education on Intelligent Drinking. Regulating Outlet density of Alcohol shops Community Intervention Policy a) I, II and III b) II and IV c) II, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV. 116. What is the ‗cloud behind the silver lining‘ in the passage above? a) The Pandemic which is impacting the current education system. b) That, the Governmental educational institutions are not able to deliver quality education. c) Scoring Higher marks or percentage in school education does not guarantee skilled and competitive candidature of the student. d) License Raj has negatively impacted Higher education. 117. Which of the following statements weakens the argument that chopping the syllabi in the times of Pandemic will only worsen a student‘s disorientation and hence should be reconsidered? a) It does not matter even if syllabi is chopped. The students who don‘t want to study will even not study in the minimal syllabi structure even during the pandemic. b) Students don‘t care about syllabi. They study only for marks and grades. c) Reduced syllabi will help in achieving the teaching-learning targets in due time and hence won‘t put pressure on students. d) All of the above. 118. The number of students scoring 95% and above in XII class board exams has more than doubled. Which of the following statements serves as a plausible explanation for the same? a) Students have started studying with sincerity and concentration. b) Evaluation of answer scripts has become liberal. c) Question papers these days are easier to solve. d) All of the above. 119. For developing a student friendly ecosystem of education, which of the following serve as need of the hour, as per the Author? Increasing the Syllabi in School Building adequate number of public colleges and Eliminating Reservation in admissions to Higher education Creating a quality based education system a) Only I and II. b) Only I, II and IV. c) Only III. d) Only II and IV. 120. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? a) Scoring High marks in XII class can help in reducing stress amongst students in the times of Pandemic. b) High Cut-off of marks also contribute in reducing opportunities for the students. c) Private institutions should not be regulated. d) License Raj should be done away with. 121. Which of the following is the main idea behind the passage? a) Work from home is the new normal. b) Work from home will result in shutting down of big buildings. c) Work from home culture will result in systematization of City planning and development. d) More professionals should be included in the ‗work from home‘ list. 122. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? a) The ‗work from home‘ culture is a no-chaos culture. b) There is lack of distribution of activities in the ‗work from home‘ scenario. c) The routine culture as opposed to ‗work from home‘ does not benefit the society in any way. d) All of the above. 123. Which of the following can be associated benefits of the new culture ? a) It will save commute time. b) The city‘s land can be used more efficiently c) Better distribution of activities would be associated with safer streets and public spaces as they would not go unused and hence have less likelihood of being used for unlawful activities. d) All of the above. 124. Consider the following statement: ―Work from home culture is a sustainable method of business and should be extended to all professions.‖ Which of the following weakens the Author‘s argument? a) Not every type of profession fits in the ‗work from home‘ culture as different professions have different requirements and need different environmental and work space settings. b) ‗Work from home‘ impacts a person‘s mental health. c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b) 125. Which of the following weakens the author‘s argument that ‗Work from home‘ culture will enable better city planning? a) Development of Co-working spaces will further create chaos in terms of land planning. b) City planning is not only about reducing spaces. c) Work from home will also reduce the flow of money in the economy. d) All of the above. 126. If highways were restricted to cars and only those trucks with capacity of less than 8 tons, most of the truck traffic would be forced to run outside highways. Such a reduction in the amount of truck traffic would reduce the risk of collisions on highways. The conclusion drawn in the first sentence depends on which of the following assumptions? a) The roads outside highway would be as convenient as highway for most drivers of trucks.. b) Most of the roads outside highways are not ready to handle truck traffic. c) Most trucks that are currently running in highway have a capacity of more than 8 tons. d) Cars are at greater risk of being involved in collisions than are trucks. 127. Read the debate between Harry and Potter and identify the main issue: Harry: Within democracies, voters are entitled to know the down-side to a candidate and the other side is obviously well placed to voice it. To stifle one‘s ability to voice negative things about a candidate would be to obstruct democracy and limit free speech. Potter: Negative advertisements produce the politics of the personal, since an easiest advert is an attack-advert which focuses on the personality or personal qualities of one‘s opponent. A negative advertisement is one that focuses upon a rival product, in this case, a rival election candidate or party in order to point its flaws and to persuade the public to not vote for it. a) Whether negative advertisement strengthens democratic governance? b) Whether the practice of negative advertisements is good for democracy and politics? c) Whether negative advertising needs to be banned? d) Whether negative advertising produces the politics of the personal? 128. Which alternative applies to the following Statement and Assumption? Statement: Go by Aeroplane to reach Delhi from Chennai quickly. Assumptions: Chennai and Delhi are connected by Air There is no other means to commute from Chennai to The Air distance between Delhi and Chennai is less. a) Only I is implicit. b) Only I and II are implicit. c) Only I and III are implicit. d) Only II is implicit. 129. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna cannot follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali? a) Archana b) Bulbul c) Krishna d) Ananya CORRECT 130. If ‗367‘ means ‗I am happy‘; ‗748‘ means ‗you are sad‘ and ‗469‘ means ‗happy and sad‘ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‗and‘ in the code? a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 4 131. What is the Central Idea of the passage above? a) Institutionalised education was much better than the current online education system. b) Institutionalized education cannot be replaced by any other system of education. c) Virtual Classroom teaching is a sustainable approach to education in modern times. d) None of the above. 132. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage above? a) Virtual Classroom teaching is a sustainable approach to education b) Virtual Classroom teaching causes health problems. c) Institutionalized education system has its advantages. d) All of the above. 133. Which of the following is an implicit assumption in the observation that students are more active and responsive in online classrooms as compared to that in physical ones? Students are not serious while studying in physical Online classrooms inculcate more interest in students towards studies than the physical classrooms. Students don‘t like physical classrooms at Students sleep in physical a) Only I and II b) Only III and IV c) I and IV d) I, II, III and IV. 134. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? a) There is a divide in opinions of people on the merits and demerits of Online education. b) Online education system is going to replace the Institutionalized education system. c) The institutionalized education system is not at all perilous for health of students. d) All of the above. 135. Consider this statement: ‗Virtual education provides for various online seminars, opportunities to interact with learned experts, pro-bono education classes etc., for students across India irrespective of their economic status and background.‘ Which of the following statements weakens the statement? Many students in remote areas do not have access to internet Many students in rural areas do not have devices to take advantage of the Virtual classrooms. Online Seminars and pro bono classes are not interesting and do not cater to the needs of students across The mobile phone data packages to access such heavy online contents are not enough and participation in such events involves costly data packages which is dependent upon the economic status of those a) Only I, II, III b) Only III and IV c) Only I, II and IV. d) Only I and II. 136. Number of females affected by Japanese encephalitis in West Bengal are what percentage (up to 1 decimal) more or less than that of females affected in Odisha? a) 28.6 % less b) 29.7 % more c) 26.8 % less d) 25.8 % more 137. What is the average number of males affected by Japanese encephalitis in all the five states? a) 9,000 b) 13,500 c) 18,400 d) 20,600 138. If the total number of males affected by Japanese Encephalitis in other states are 87 % more than the average number of males in Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand, the total number of males affected in India is: a) 44,880 b) 1,40,880 c) 1,47,880 d) 68,880 139. By what percentage is the average of males in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh together more or less than the average of females in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha together who are affected by Japanese encephalitis? a) 22 b) 24 c) 26 d) 28 140. What is the percentage (up to 1 decimal) of females affected by ‗Japanese encephalitis‘ of the total affected population across five states? a) 25.4 b) 36.7 c) 24.5 d) 37.6 141. What would be the area of the room which is not covered by any object as mentioned above? (a) 176.5 sq. ft. (b) 178 sq. ft. (c) 367 sq. ft. (d) 245.5 sq. ft. 142. What is the area of the table which is uncovered by any of the objects? (a) 1656 sq. inch (b) 1617.52 sq. inch (c) 1473.52 sq. inch (d) 1512 sq. inch 143. How many tables are required to cover the floor surface of the room completely? (a) 18 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) Data inadequate. 144. If the entire room is to be filled by books having same dimensions as lying on the table then how many books are required (a) 2,00,736 (b) 20,736 (c) 11,736 (d) 17,522 145. How many chairs can be put inside the room so as to cover the entire floor area of the room? (a) 40 (b) 21 (c) 43 (d) 18 146. The length of the rope is a. 2 + π b. 2 + π/2 c. 2 + 2/ π d. 2 147. The area of the plot is a. 18.13 b. 21.83 c. 28.13 d. 11.83 148. If a triangle is created by joining points A, B, and C. What will be the length of AB? a. 3.73 b. 7.33 c. 1.86 d. Can‘t be calculated with the given data 149. What will be the area of the triangle ABC? a. 6.96 b. 9.66 c. 3.66 d. Can‘t be calculated with the given data 150. What will be the perimeter of the triangle ABC? a. 40.4 b. 30.3 c. 20.2 d. 10.1 Warning: Undefined array key "correct_answer_logic" in /home/kaling/public_html/kalingaplus/wp-content/plugins/quiz-master-next/php/classes/class-qmn-quiz-manager.php on line 451 Time's up